Bleeding episodes in a person with hemophilia can be treated with:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood clotting factor transfusions. This is the appropriate treatment for bleeding episodes in people with hemophilia as they lack certain clotting factors. Transfusing these missing clotting factors helps to stop the bleeding. Explanation: 1. Aspirin (Choice A) is not recommended for hemophilia patients as it can increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. 2. Blood clotting drugs (Choice B) may not be as effective as transfusions of specific clotting factors in treating bleeding episodes in hemophilia. 3. Gene therapy (Choice C) is a promising treatment for hemophilia, but it is not yet widely available and may not be the immediate solution for acute bleeding episodes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Aplasia is not directly caused by riboflavin deficiency. Aplasia refers to the failure of an organ or tissue to develop or function normally, while riboflavin deficiency is associated with conditions like glossitis and cheilosis, not aplasia. Riboflavin deficiency primarily affects mucous membranes and skin, not organ development. Therefore, there is no direct causal relationship between riboflavin deficiency and aplasia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest a potential link between riboflavin deficiency and aplasia, which is not supported by scientific evidence.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 2 and 3. Clopidogrel and dipyridamole are commonly used as prophylaxis for cardiovascular effects. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that helps prevent blood clots, reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes. Dipyridamole is a vasodilator that helps widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the workload on the heart. Ticlopidine, on the other hand, is not commonly used due to its side effects and potential for serious complications. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they include ticlopidine, which is not typically used for cardiovascular prophylaxis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Orthochromic Normoblast. This is the most mature normoblast stage before becoming a mature red blood cell. The orthochromic normoblast has a small, condensed nucleus and minimal cytoplasmic basophilia. Basophilic normoblast (B) is an earlier stage with a larger nucleus and more basophilia. Pronormoblast (C) is the earliest stage with a large nucleus and intense basophilia. Polychromatic normoblast (D) is an intermediate stage with a slightly reduced nucleus and residual basophilia. Therefore, A is the most mature normoblast stage among the choices provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Normal Adult Hb A is composed of two alpha and two beta globin chains. Step 2: Hemoglobin A is the most common type of hemoglobin in adults. Step 3: The correct answer, A, is alpha and beta, as confirmed in step 1. Step 4: Choice B is incorrect as epsilon is not a component of Adult Hb A. Step 5: Choice C is incorrect as delta is not a component of Adult Hb A. Step 6: Choice D is incorrect as brotherton is not a known component of hemoglobin.