Assigning LPN to a patient group. Best patient for LPN?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a 30-year-old with renal failure needing epoetin alfa would benefit from a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) due to the need for ongoing medication administration and monitoring. Renal failure and epoetin alfa therapy require regular assessment of vital signs, medication side effects, and patient response, tasks well within an LPN's scope of practice. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as managing hemophilia B for PRBCs requires specialized knowledge and skills beyond an LPN's scope. - Choice C is incorrect as managing polycythemia vera for phlebotomy involves more complex care that is typically outside an LPN's scope. - Choice D is incorrect as post-stem cell transplant care, including bone marrow aspiration, requires a higher level of nursing expertise typically provided by a Registered Nurse or Nurse Practitioner.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bleeding time evaluates platelet function in vivo by measuring the time it takes for a small, standardized skin incision to stop bleeding. This test directly assesses the primary hemostasis process mediated by platelets. Choice A is incorrect because bleeding time can be influenced by various factors, making it less reliable and reproducible. Choice B is incorrect because bleeding time is typically evaluated using a stopwatch, not an optical densitometer. Choice D is incorrect because bleeding time is not a commonly ordered test due to its limitations and variability in results.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Thrombosis. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neurological deficits. Thrombosis is not a typical feature of TTP. In TTP, platelet aggregation leads to microthrombi formation, causing microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neurological symptoms. Thrombosis, on the other hand, is more commonly associated with conditions such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, choice A is not associated with TTP, making it the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are all features commonly seen in TTP.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Neutrophilia is the correct answer for chronic bacterial infection. Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial infections, leading to an increase in their count. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions, not bacterial infections. Lymphocytosis is seen in viral infections. Eosinophilia is associated with parasitic infections and allergic responses.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Koilonychias, characterized by spoon-shaped nails, is specific to iron deficiency anemia due to impaired nail growth. In hemolytic anemia, sickle cell disease, and thalassemia major, nail abnormalities are not typically observed. Iron deficiency leads to brittle, spoon-shaped nails. Consequently, option D is the correct answer.