ATI LPN
Hematologic System Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Artemisinin treats resistant falciparum due to?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Schizonticidal activity. Artemisinin targets and kills the asexual blood stage of the malaria parasite Plasmodium falciparum, known as schizonts. This action helps in treating resistant falciparum malaria. Gametocidal activity (A) targets sexual stage parasites, preventing transmission but not directly treating the infection. Preventing hypnozoites (B) is specific to Plasmodium vivax and ovale, not falciparum. Sporontocidal activity (C) targets mosquito-stage parasites, which is not relevant for treating resistant falciparum malaria.
Question 2 of 5
Which drug is a platelet inhibitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clopidogrel (Plavix). Clopidogrel is a platelet inhibitor that works by inhibiting the platelet activation and aggregation process. It specifically targets the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing them from clumping together. This action helps to prevent blood clots from forming, making it an effective antiplatelet medication. Enoxaparin (B) is a low molecular weight heparin that works by inhibiting factors Xa and IIa, making it an anticoagulant rather than a platelet inhibitor. Reteplase (C) is a thrombolytic agent that works by converting plasminogen to plasmin, aiding in the breakdown of blood clots. Warfarin (D) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
Question 3 of 5
At which stage of life are people most commonly diagnosed with PIDD?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infancy. Primary Immunodeficiency Disorders (PIDD) are typically diagnosed in infancy due to recurrent infections and failure to thrive. Infants with PIDD often exhibit severe and persistent infections, making diagnosis more apparent at this stage. In contrast, early childhood (A) and adolescence (C) are less common stages for PIDD diagnosis due to the immune system maturing and symptoms becoming more noticeable in infancy. Early adulthood (D) is also less common as PIDD is usually identified earlier in life.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is addressing condom use in the context of a health promotion workshop. When discussing the correct use of condoms, which instruction should the nurse give the attendees?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hold the condom during withdrawal so it doesn't come off. This is crucial to prevent slippage and potential exposure to sexually transmitted infections or unintended pregnancy. Holding the condom during withdrawal maintains its position and reduces the risk of breakage. A: Applying the condom prior to erection is incorrect as it may lead to slippage. B: Reusing a condom is unsafe and increases the risk of breakage and transmission of infections. C: Using skin lotion as a lubricant is not recommended as it can damage the condom and increase the risk of breakage.
Question 5 of 5
A client's primary infection with HIV has subsided and an equilibrium now exists between HIV levels and the client's immune response. This is known as what physiologic state?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Viral set point. During this stage, the client's immune response has reached a balance with HIV levels, leading to a stable viral load. This term reflects the equilibrium between viral replication and immune control. A: The static stage implies an inactive phase, which does not accurately describe the dynamic balance in the viral set point. B: Latent stage refers to a period of inactivity in viral replication, not the balanced state described in the question. D: The window period is the time between infection and detectable levels of HIV antibodies, not the equilibrium between viral levels and immune response.