Anemia is a condition in which the number of red blood cells or the amount of hemoglobin (the protein that carries oxygen in red blood cells) is low. Which of the following is NOT one of the mechanisms that can lead to anemia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inadequate production of white blood cells. Anemia is specifically related to red blood cells and hemoglobin, not white blood cells. White blood cells are part of the immune system and are responsible for fighting infections, not oxygen transport. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they directly impact red blood cell count or hemoglobin levels, which are essential for oxygen transport in the body. Blood loss leads to a decrease in red blood cells, excessive destruction of red blood cells reduces the total count, and inadequate production of red blood cells results in a low number of functional cells.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inadequate production of Hb. Anemia is classified based on the underlying mechanism causing decreased hemoglobin levels. Inadequate production of hemoglobin is one of the classifications, encompassing conditions like iron deficiency anemia. Decreased RBC production (choice B) is a broader classification that includes various causes like bone marrow disorders. Increased erythrocyte destruction (choice C) refers to hemolytic anemias where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely. Blood loss (choice D) is a separate classification related to acute or chronic bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer specifically addresses the primary issue of insufficient hemoglobin production in anemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Aplasia is not directly caused by riboflavin deficiency. Aplasia refers to the failure of an organ or tissue to develop or function normally, while riboflavin deficiency is associated with conditions like glossitis and cheilosis, not aplasia. Riboflavin deficiency primarily affects mucous membranes and skin, not organ development. Therefore, there is no direct causal relationship between riboflavin deficiency and aplasia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest a potential link between riboflavin deficiency and aplasia, which is not supported by scientific evidence.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 2 and 3. Clopidogrel and dipyridamole are commonly used as prophylaxis for cardiovascular effects. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that helps prevent blood clots, reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes. Dipyridamole is a vasodilator that helps widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the workload on the heart. Ticlopidine, on the other hand, is not commonly used due to its side effects and potential for serious complications. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they include ticlopidine, which is not typically used for cardiovascular prophylaxis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Orthochromic Normoblast. This is the most mature normoblast stage before becoming a mature red blood cell. The orthochromic normoblast has a small, condensed nucleus and minimal cytoplasmic basophilia. Basophilic normoblast (B) is an earlier stage with a larger nucleus and more basophilia. Pronormoblast (C) is the earliest stage with a large nucleus and intense basophilia. Polychromatic normoblast (D) is an intermediate stage with a slightly reduced nucleus and residual basophilia. Therefore, A is the most mature normoblast stage among the choices provided.