ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical Questions
Question 1 of 9
An outcome for treatment of peripheral vascular disease is, 'The client will have decreased venous congestion.' What client behavior would indicate to the nurse that this outcome has been met?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because avoiding prolonged sitting or standing helps improve venous return by preventing blood from pooling in the legs, reducing venous congestion. This behavior promotes circulation and decreases the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address venous congestion or circulation improvement, making them incorrect options. Avoiding trauma and irritation to the skin (B) is important for skin integrity but not specifically for venous congestion. Wearing protective shoes (C) is related to preventing foot injuries but does not directly impact venous congestion. Quitting smoking (D) is beneficial for overall health but does not directly target venous congestion.
Question 2 of 9
For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol is to prevent asthma attacks. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist that helps to relax the muscles of the airways over an extended period, reducing the likelihood of bronchospasms and asthma exacerbations. It is not used for relieving acute bronchospasm (choice A), suppressing cough (choice C), or thinning respiratory secretions (choice D) as these are not the main therapeutic effects of salmeterol in asthma management.
Question 3 of 9
When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it violates patient confidentiality. Reading a client's history and physical in a public area breaches the client's privacy rights. The other choices do not directly compromise patient confidentiality. A involves discussing a cure for AIDS, which is not a breach of confidentiality. C involves sharing personal experiences with the client, and D involves discussing a client's history of drug abuse in a visitor's lounge, which may not be overheard by the client or staff directly involved in the client's care.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sevelamer (RenaGel) is a phosphate binder used in ESRD to bind with phosphorus in foods, preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This is important as ESRD patients often have high levels of phosphorus in their blood, which can lead to complications like cardiovascular disease. Taking RenaGel with meals ensures that it binds with phosphorus in the food, reducing its absorption. Choice A is incorrect as RenaGel does not prevent indigestion associated with spicy foods. Choice C is incorrect as RenaGel does not promote stomach emptying or prevent gastric reflux. Choice D is incorrect as RenaGel does not buffer hydrochloric acid or prevent gastric erosion.
Question 5 of 9
What instruction should the nurse give regarding the administration of alendronate to a patient with osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water on an empty stomach in the morning to enhance absorption. Option A is incorrect because taking alendronate with milk decreases its absorption. Option B is incorrect as lying down after taking alendronate can lead to esophageal irritation. Option D is incorrect because taking the medication before bedtime can cause esophageal irritation as well due to the risk of reflux when lying down.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relieve neuropathic pain. Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. It is effective in conditions such as diabetic neuropathy and postherpetic neuralgia. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin does not have anti-inflammatory properties. Choice C is incorrect as gabapentin does not enhance opioid analgesia, but it can be used in conjunction with opioids for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as gabapentin is not indicated for cough suppression.
Question 7 of 9
A young adult female client is seen in the emergency department for a minor injury following a motor vehicle collision. She states she is very angry at the person who hit her car. What is the best nursing response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You are upset that this incident has brought you here." This response acknowledges the client's feelings of anger and validates her emotions, showing empathy and understanding. It demonstrates active listening and therapeutic communication, which is crucial in building trust and rapport with the client. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings of anger and invalidates her emotions by shifting the focus to being grateful instead. Choice B is incorrect as it minimizes the client's emotional response by focusing on the material aspect of the situation rather than addressing her feelings. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's emotional state and is a closed-ended question that does not encourage further discussion or exploration of the client's feelings.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with diabetes insipidus is prescribed desmopressin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Desmopressin is a synthetic form of vasopressin used to replace the hormone in diabetes insipidus. The primary purpose is to decrease urine output by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby reducing excessive urination and preventing dehydration. Choice A is incorrect as desmopressin actually decreases urine output. Choice B is incorrect as desmopressin does not directly affect blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as desmopressin does not primarily lower blood pressure.
Question 9 of 9
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxygen saturation of 88%. In COPD patients, low oxygen saturation indicates inadequate gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Oxygen saturation below 90% requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. A: Barrel-shaped chest is a common finding in COPD due to hyperinflation, but it is not a critical indicator of acute exacerbation. B: Use of accessory muscles suggests increased work of breathing but may not be as urgent as low oxygen saturation. D: Respiratory rate is within normal range, so it is less concerning than the low oxygen saturation.