An older adult patient has fallen in her home and is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with a suspected fractured hip. X-rays confirm a fracture of the left femoral neck. When planning assessments during the patient's presurgical care, the nurse should be aware of the patient's heightened risk of what complication?

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Question 1 of 5

An older adult patient has fallen in her home and is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with a suspected fractured hip. X-rays confirm a fracture of the left femoral neck. When planning assessments during the patient's presurgical care, the nurse should be aware of the patient's heightened risk of what complication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avascular necrosis. A fractured femoral neck can disrupt blood flow to the head of the femur, leading to avascular necrosis (bone death). This complication can result in further pain and disability. Osteomyelitis (A) is an infection of the bone, which is not directly linked to a fractured femoral neck. Phantom pain (C) is pain perceived in a body part that is no longer there, typically in amputees, not related to a fractured hip. Septicemia (D) is a serious bloodstream infection, which may be a complication of surgery or prolonged hospitalization, but not directly related to a fractured hip.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a patient with 70% total body surface area chemical burns. Which approach should the nurse anticipate to meet this patient's nutritional needs?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Option A, parenteral nutrition, is the correct approach for a patient with extensive burns as it bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and provides essential nutrients directly into the bloodstream. This is crucial in cases of severe burns to prevent complications such as malnutrition and support the body's healing process. Options B and C involve feeding through the gastrointestinal tract, which may not be suitable for such extensive burns due to potential complications like GI intolerance or absorption issues. Option D, six small high-calorie meals per day, is not appropriate for a patient with extensive burns as the digestive system may not be able to handle normal oral intake.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse notes that a patient's wound is weeping and edematous. In which phase of healing is this wound?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the weeping and edematous wound indicates an inflammatory phase. This phase involves the body's initial response to injury, characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain. The weeping suggests fluid accumulation due to increased vascular permeability. The proliferative phase focuses on tissue repair and regeneration, while maturation involves tissue remodeling and scar formation. Hemostasis is the immediate response to stop bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Question 4 of 5

What layer of the epidermis is most superficial?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stratum corneum. The stratum corneum is the most superficial layer of the epidermis, consisting of dead, flattened keratinocytes. It acts as a protective barrier against external factors. The other choices are incorrect because the stratum lucidum is found only in thick skin, the stratum granulosum is the layer where keratinocytes start to flatten and lose their nuclei, and the stratum basale is the deepest layer where active cell division occurs.

Question 5 of 5

What is the laser attracted to in hair removal?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Melanin. Melanin is the pigment responsible for the color of the hair and skin. Laser hair removal targets melanin in the hair follicles, absorbing the laser energy and converting it to heat, which damages the follicle and inhibits future hair growth. Keratin (A) is a protein in the hair shaft, not the target for laser removal. Collagen (C) is a protein in the skin, not involved in hair removal. Sebum (D) is a natural oil produced by the skin glands, not targeted by laser hair removal.

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