ATI LPN
Perioperative Nursing Care NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
An appendectomy is being performed on a patient with appendicitis. What is the correct classification for this surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An appendectomy for appendicitis is classified as curative surgery because it removes the inflamed appendix to eliminate the disease and prevent complications like rupture. Diagnostic surgery investigates conditions, not applicable here as the diagnosis is clear. Urgent surgery describes timing, not purpose, though this procedure is urgent; classification prioritizes intent. Radical surgery involves extensive removal, typically for cancer, not appendicitis. The rationale focuses on the curative goal: excising the appendix cures the acute infection, aligning with surgical classifications where intent (cure, restore, palliate) defines the category. This distinguishes it from timing-based (urgent) or scope-based (radical) labels, emphasizing nursing's role in supporting recovery from a resolved condition.
Question 2 of 5
The acute, life-threatening complication of MH results from the use of which agents?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia (MH) results from succinylcholine and inhalation agents , known triggers in genetically susceptible patients. Hypnotics , nitrous oxide , and fentanyl don't typically cause MH. The rationale identifies etiology: succinylcholine (a depolarizing relaxant) and volatile anesthetics (e.g., halothane) disrupt calcium regulation in muscles, causing hypermetabolism. Nursing recognizes these agents to anticipate MH, ensuring rapid intervention (e.g., dantrolene), critical for survival, distinguishing MH from other anesthetic complications.
Question 3 of 5
Which patient would be a candidate for moderate sedation? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Moderate sedation suits endoscopy , fracture reduction , and catheterization . Cesarean requires deeper anesthesia. The rationale explains suitability: moderate sedation (e.g., midazolam) keeps patients responsive yet relaxed for brief, less invasive procedures, unlike major surgeries needing general anesthesia. Nursing monitors consciousness and vitals, ensuring safety, tailored to procedure type.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse transfers a patient to the PACU with an incision and drainage of an abscess in the right groin under general anesthesia. Blood pressure is 80/47 mm Hg, heart rate 117/min in sinus tachycardia, respiratory rate 28/min, pulse oximetry reading 93% on oxygen at 3 L nasal cannula, temp is 38.5°C. Using the SBAR charting format, which information should be included in assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In SBAR's assessment, vital signs and wound output are key, showing instability (hypotension, tachycardia, fever). Procedure is situation; orders are recommendation; history is background. The rationale follows SBAR: assessment presents objective data (BP 80/47, HR 117, temp 38.5°C), signaling shock or infection, guiding interventions. Nursing communicates clearly, ensuring team response, distinct from context or orders.
Question 5 of 5
The PACU nurse is caring for a postoperative patient. The patient's oxygen saturation drops from 98% to 88%. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority is calling the Rapid Response Team for an SpO2 drop to 88%, signaling hypoxia needing urgent escalation. Calling providers (choice A, B) or therapist delays. The rationale follows ABCs: 88% indicates respiratory compromise; rapid response delivers immediate expertise (e.g., oxygen, suction). Nursing acts decisively, ensuring oxygenation, distinct from slower consults, critical for patient stability.