ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that is most effective when taken within 72 hours after unprotected sex. Step 2: Taking the medication within the specified time frame increases its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Step 3: Thus, the nurse should emphasize to the adolescent the importance of taking the medication promptly after unprotected intercourse. Step 4: This information is crucial for the adolescent to understand the time-sensitive nature of levonorgestrel contraception. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because it provides contradictory information. Levonorgestrel can be taken even if the individual is on an oral contraceptive. - Choice C is incorrect as starting a period is not a reliable indicator of pregnancy. A pregnancy test is recommended if there are concerns. - Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraception and does not provide protection for 14 days.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client who would like information about pregnancy testing. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Using the first morning urine specimen for a home pregnancy test is recommended because it is more concentrated, increasing the accuracy of the test. This is due to the higher levels of the pregnancy hormone hCG present in the urine after a night of not urinating. Choice A is incorrect because pregnancy testing can usually be done as early as 1-2 weeks after conception, not necessarily 4 weeks. Choice B is incorrect as being on medications does not typically affect the accuracy of a pregnancy test. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for fasting before a pregnancy test; it does not impact the test results.
Question 3 of 9
A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation is reviewing a new prescription of ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I plan to drink more orange juice while taking this pill." Orange juice is rich in vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of iron from ferrous sulfate, helping to combat iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. Taking the pill with a vitamin C source is important for optimal absorption. A: Taking the pill with breakfast may not provide enough vitamin C for optimal absorption. B: Milk may inhibit iron absorption due to its calcium content, so it is not ideal to take with ferrous sulfate. D: While increasing calcium-rich foods is important during pregnancy, it is not directly related to enhancing iron absorption from ferrous sulfate.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for performing Leopold maneuvers is to first palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part (A), then determine the location of the fetal back (B), and finally palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet (C). Choosing option D (All of the Above) is correct because it encompasses all the necessary steps in the correct order to perform Leopold maneuvers effectively. Palpating the fundus helps identify the presenting part, determining the location of the fetal back provides information on the fetal lie, and palpating for the presenting part at the inlet helps confirm the position of the fetus. The other choices are incorrect because they do not provide the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers accurately.
Question 5 of 9
A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's room number. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not appropriate as it does not uniquely identify the client and can lead to errors. The room number may change, or there could be multiple clients in the same room. Telephone number, birth date, and medical record number are more reliable secondary identifiers as they are unique to the client and less likely to be confused with another individual. It is essential to use accurate and reliable identifiers to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is assisting the nurse manager with an educational session about ways to prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by one of the session participants indicates understanding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant to prevent toxoplasmosis, a TORCH infection. Toxoplasmosis is commonly found in undercooked meat and can be harmful to the fetus. Seeking an immunization against rubella early in pregnancy (A) is important, but it does not prevent all TORCH infections. Prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus if detected during pregnancy (B) is not a standard practice. Avoiding crowded places during pregnancy (C) may reduce the risk of infections, but it is not specific to TORCH infections.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an indication of hypoglycemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory distress. Hypoglycemia in a late preterm newborn can lead to respiratory distress due to inadequate energy supply to respiratory muscles. Hypertonia (choice A) may indicate other issues such as hypocalcemia. Increased feeding (choice B) is not a typical clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia, as the newborn may have poor feeding due to low energy levels. Hyperthermia (choice C) is not directly related to hypoglycemia but may occur in response to infection or other causes. Thus, respiratory distress is the most indicative of hypoglycemia in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to dehydration and ketonuria. Presence of urine ketones indicates fat breakdown due to inadequate calorie intake. Option A is within normal range for hemoglobin. Option C is within normal range for alanine aminotransferase. Option D is within normal range for blood glucose. Thus, the presence of urine ketones is the most indicative finding for hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 9 of 9
During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the acoustic vibration device is used during a nonstress test to wake up a sleeping fetus, ensuring that the baby is active and responsive during the test. This helps to assess the baby's well-being and monitor its heart rate patterns. Choice A is incorrect as the device does not stimulate uterine contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it does not decrease the incidence of contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the device does not lull the fetus to sleep, but rather ensures the fetus is awake and moving during the test.