ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical Questions
Question 1 of 5
After performing a paracentesis on a client with ascites, 3 liters of fluid are removed. Which assessment parameter is most critical for the nurse to monitor following the procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vital signs. After paracentesis, monitoring vital signs is crucial as fluid removal can lead to changes in blood pressure, heart rate, and overall fluid balance. Hypotension or tachycardia may indicate hypovolemia or shock. Pedal pulses (A) are important but not as critical post-paracentesis. Breath sounds (B) are important for respiratory assessment but not directly related to fluid removal. Gag reflex (C) is unrelated to paracentesis and not a priority post-procedure.
Question 2 of 5
The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the muscles involved in coughing, leading to diminished cough effort. This can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications. Pain during coughing (choice A) may occur but is not the primary cause of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. Thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not as directly related to the underlying muscle weakness seen in myasthenia gravis.
Question 3 of 5
Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client has developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy. After a CVA, dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen indicate a risk for aspiration and bowel obstruction. Continuous tube feeding may worsen these issues. Option B provides nutrition intravenously, bypassing the gastrointestinal tract. Option C helps decompress the stomach. Option D is a medication to help with GI motility. Therefore, the nurse should question option A due to the risk of complications post-CVA.
Question 4 of 5
A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No palpable pulse. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia where the heart quivers and doesn't effectively pump blood. This results in the absence of a palpable pulse. The nurse should anticipate this finding as it indicates a severe cardiac emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ventricular fibrillation leads to ineffective heart contractions, causing a lack of pulse rather than bounding, irregular, or thready pulses. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize the absence of a palpable pulse to initiate prompt resuscitative measures.
Question 5 of 5
While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep inflamed cracks at the corners of the mouth can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). Ensuring the client gets adequate B vitamins through foods or supplements can help address the deficiency and improve the condition. Option A is incorrect as simply applying a moisturizing cream does not address the underlying cause. Option B is not the best choice because while vitamin B-rich foods are beneficial, they may not be sufficient to correct a deficiency. Option C is not the immediate priority unless there are other concerning symptoms present.