ATI LPN
Neurology Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
After a patient experienced a brief episode of tinnitus, diplopia, and dysarthria with no residual effects, the nurse anticipates teaching the patient about
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms are consistent with transient ischemic attack (TIA), and drugs that inhibit platelet aggregation are prescribed after a TIA to prevent a stroke. Continuous heparin infusion is not routinely used after TIA or with acute ischemic stroke. The patient's symptoms are not consistent with a cerebral aneurysm. tPA is used only for acute ischemic stroke, not for TIA.
Question 2 of 5
You witness your patient having a tonic-clonic seizure. What is our first action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority is to protect the airway by turning the patient on their side to prevent aspiration of saliva or vomit. Checking motor strength, loosening clothing, and documenting time are secondary to immediate safety.
Question 3 of 5
A 39-year-old female presents with progressive weakness in her shoulders and hips over a period of two months. She states that getting up from a chair, climbing a flight of stairs, combing her hair, and picking up her groceries have become increasingly difficult. Family history is significant for colon cancer in her father, and systemic lupus erythematosus in the mother. Creatine kinase and LDH is elevated on laboratory testing. On physical examination, an erythematous rash in the periorbital region is seen. Mild swelling is noted in the small joints of the hand. Muscle tenderness is elicited upon palpation of the shoulders and hips. 4-/5 strength is appreciated in the deltoid, and hip. Which of the following is the best treatment for her symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dermatomyositis (proximal weakness, rash, elevated CK/LDH) responds best to corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone) as initial treatment to reduce inflammation. Methotrexate is a steroid-sparing agent, hydroxychloroquine is for SLE, rituximab is for refractory cases, and IVIG is not first-line.
Question 4 of 5
A 26-year-old male presents with moderate 'tightening' bilateral headache. These headaches began approximately one week ago. He denies any sensitivity to light or sound, dizziness, fatigue, changes in memory and does not experience nausea or vomiting. Headache episodes last a few hours. He is stressed about a presentation he has to give to his company owners later this week. He remembers having occasional headaches with fatigue or stress dating back to his teenage years. There is no significant past medical history. Funduscopic evaluation is negative for papilledema, and there is pericranial muscle tenderness upon palpation. The remainder of his neurological examination is normal. Which of the following is most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bilateral, tightening headache with stress and muscle tenderness, without red flags (e.g., papilledema), suggests tension-type headache. Imaging is not indicated in the absence of neurological deficits or sinister features.
Question 5 of 5
A 46-year-old man presents with restlessness, depression, and weight loss. Initially, he noticed increased clumsiness, and now has had involuntary, jerky-like movements of his upper extremity. He incorporates the involuntary movements into his purposeful movements so his wife does not notice. His father committed suicide, and his mother is currently healthy. He has been having difficulty with work due to problems with multi-tasking, and decision making. On physical examination, delayed saccadic initiation is appreciated, as well as difficulty with finger tapping, and maintaining steady grip. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chorea (jerky movements), cognitive decline, and psychiatric symptoms with a family history (father’s suicide) suggest Huntington disease, an autosomal dominant disorder. Myoclonus is briefer, tics are suppressible, and MSA involves parkinsonism.