Absolute lymphocytosis and thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mm^3) with or without lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, or anemia is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?

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Question 1 of 5

Absolute lymphocytosis and thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mm^3) with or without lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, or anemia is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stage III in the Rai Staging System for CLL prognosis. In CLL, Stage III is characterized by absolute lymphocytosis, thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mm^3), and one or more of the following: lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, or anemia. This stage indicates advanced disease with more aggressive features and a poorer prognosis compared to earlier stages. Explanation of other choices: A: Stage 0 - This stage is characterized by lymphocytosis without any other symptoms or signs of disease progression. B: Stage I - In Stage I, there is lymphocytosis with lymphadenopathy. C: Stage II - In Stage II, there is lymphocytosis with hepatomegaly and/or splenomegaly, without anemia or thrombocytopenia. Therefore, based on the presence of absolute lymphocytosis, thrombocytopen

Question 2 of 5

The hexose monophosphate pathway activity increases the RBC source of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: NADPH and reduced glutathione. In the hexose monophosphate pathway, glucose-6-phosphate is converted to ribose-5-phosphate and generates NADPH. NADPH is essential for maintaining cellular redox balance and for reducing oxidized glutathione to its reduced form, which helps protect against oxidative damage in RBCs. Choice A (Glucose and lactic acid) is incorrect because the pathway does not directly produce these compounds. Choice B (2,3-BPG and methemoglobin) is incorrect as these are not products of the hexose monophosphate pathway. Choice D (ATP and other purine metabolites) is incorrect because the main products of the pathway are NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate, not ATP or purine metabolites.

Question 3 of 5

The maximum number of erythrocytes generated by one Multipotential Stem Cell is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 16. A Multipotential Stem Cell can differentiate into various blood cell types, including erythrocytes. Through the process of erythropoiesis, each Multipotential Stem Cell can produce up to 16 erythrocytes. This is achieved through several stages of cell division and maturation. Choice A (8) is incorrect because the number of erythrocytes produced is greater. Choice B (1) is incorrect as a Multipotential Stem Cell can differentiate into multiple cells. Choice C (12) is also incorrect as the maximum number of erythrocytes produced is 16.

Question 4 of 5

Name 3 signs you might see on examination of a patient’s face, skin, and nails that are associated with iron deficiency anaemia. (Choose one)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Koilonychia. Koilonychia is a clinical sign associated with iron deficiency anemia characterized by spoon-shaped nails. This occurs due to the decreased production of hemoglobin, leading to changes in the nail bed. Fever (choice A) is not a typical sign of iron deficiency anemia. Rash (choice C) is not a common manifestation of this condition. Weight gain (choice D) is also not a typical sign, as iron deficiency anemia is more commonly associated with weight loss or failure to thrive. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate sign to look for in a patient with iron deficiency anemia.

Question 5 of 5

What haematological condition does this patient have? (75-year-old with septic shock, ARDS, bleeding, low platelets, elevated PT/APTT)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In septic shock, the body's response can lead to widespread activation of clotting factors, causing both clotting and bleeding. Low platelets and elevated PT/APTT are common in DIC due to consumption of clotting factors and platelets. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (A) presents with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, not typical in this case. Hemophilia (B) is a genetic disorder resulting in specific clotting factor deficiencies, not consistent with the patient's presentation. Von Willebrand disease (D) is a deficiency in vWF, leading to mucosal bleeding, not the systemic coagulopathy seen in DIC.

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