A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

Questions 38

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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions

Question 1 of 9

A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid. This is the appropriate nursing action because the woman is at risk for chorioamnionitis due to the elevated temperature and ruptured membranes. Assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid can help in identifying signs of infection, as foul-smelling amniotic fluid may indicate chorioamnionitis. This can guide further interventions and management, such as initiating antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect as waiting 4 hours to recheck the temperature can delay necessary interventions for potential infection. Choice B is also incorrect as administering glucocorticoids is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not warranted solely based on the client's temperature and ruptured membranes without further assessment for infection.

Question 2 of 9

While observing the electronic fetal heart rate monitor tracing for a client at 40 weeks of gestation in labor, a nurse should suspect a problem with the umbilical cord when she observes which of the following patterns?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate that coincide with contractions, indicating umbilical cord compression. This pattern can lead to fetal hypoxia and distress. Early decelerations (A) are gradual decreases in heart rate that mirror contractions and are considered benign. Accelerations (B) are increases in heart rate and are a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. Late decelerations (C) are gradual decreases in heart rate that occur after the peak of a contraction, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency.

Question 3 of 9

When advising a woman considering pregnancy on nutritional needs to reduce the risk of giving birth to a newborn with a neural tube defect, what information should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume foods fortified with folic acid. Folic acid plays a crucial role in preventing neural tube defects in newborns. It is recommended that women of childbearing age consume 400 mcg of folic acid daily to reduce the risk. Foods fortified with folic acid include cereals, bread, and pasta. A: Limit alcohol consumption - While important for overall health, alcohol consumption is not directly related to preventing neural tube defects. B: Increase intake of iron-rich foods - Iron is essential during pregnancy, but it is not specifically linked to reducing the risk of neural tube defects. D: Avoid foods containing aspartame - Aspartame is a sweetener and does not have a direct impact on neural tube defects prevention.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because urinary frequency is common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus. This symptom typically improves by the end of the first trimester, as the uterus rises and reduces pressure on the bladder. Therefore, telling the client that it occurs during the first trimester and near the end of pregnancy is accurate. Choice A is incorrect because urinary frequency should not be ignored as it could be a sign of a urinary tract infection or other underlying issue. Choice B is incorrect because it inaccurately suggests that urinary frequency only lasts until the 12th week and implies that poor bladder tone is the sole factor influencing this symptom. Choice C is incorrect because while it is true that individual experiences can vary, there are general patterns and timelines for common pregnancy symptoms like urinary frequency.

Question 5 of 9

A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless red vaginal bleeding. This finding supports the diagnosis of placenta previa due to the characteristic symptom of painless bleeding in the third trimester. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to dilate. The other choices are incorrect because increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus (B) may indicate placental abruption, abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding (C) is not typical of placenta previa, and intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus (D) is more suggestive of preterm labor or bloody show.

Question 6 of 9

A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid. This is the appropriate nursing action because the woman is at risk for chorioamnionitis due to the elevated temperature and ruptured membranes. Assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid can help in identifying signs of infection, as foul-smelling amniotic fluid may indicate chorioamnionitis. This can guide further interventions and management, such as initiating antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect as waiting 4 hours to recheck the temperature can delay necessary interventions for potential infection. Choice B is also incorrect as administering glucocorticoids is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not warranted solely based on the client's temperature and ruptured membranes without further assessment for infection.

Question 7 of 9

A client is being cared for 2 hours after a spontaneous vaginal birth and has saturated two perineal pads with blood in a 30-minute period. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention at this time?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palpate the client's uterine fundus. Palpating the uterine fundus is crucial to assess for uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. If the fundus is boggy or deviated, it indicates uterine atony and immediate interventions are needed. B: Assisting the client to a bedpan to urinate is important, but addressing the potential cause of excessive bleeding takes precedence. C: Administering oxytocic medication may be necessary to help stimulate uterine contractions, but assessing the fundus comes first to determine the underlying cause of bleeding. D: Increasing fluid intake is not the priority in this situation. Palpating the fundus and addressing potential hemorrhage are the immediate concerns.

Question 8 of 9

When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to decreased oxygenation of the fetus. This finding should be reported to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes (choice B) are normal in the active phase of labor. Strong contractions (choice C) are also expected during this phase. Feeling contractions in the lower back (choice D) is common and not typically a cause for concern. Reporting contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds is crucial to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

Question 9 of 9

A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is specifically used to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus. Alpha-fetoprotein levels in the mother's blood can indicate the presence of such abnormalities. This test is typically done around 15-20 weeks of gestation. Choice B is incorrect because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is not used to assess various markers of fetal well-being. Choice C is incorrect because it does not identify Rh incompatibility, which is typically detected through other tests. Choice D is incorrect because the test is not primarily for spinal defects, but rather for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities.

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