ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid. This is the appropriate nursing action because the woman is at risk for chorioamnionitis due to the elevated temperature and ruptured membranes. Assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid can help in identifying signs of infection, as foul-smelling amniotic fluid may indicate chorioamnionitis. This can guide further interventions and management, such as initiating antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect as waiting 4 hours to recheck the temperature can delay necessary interventions for potential infection. Choice B is also incorrect as administering glucocorticoids is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not warranted solely based on the client's temperature and ruptured membranes without further assessment for infection.
Question 2 of 9
During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nipple line. This landmark is used for measuring newborn chest circumference as it ensures consistency in measurement and is a reliable reference point. The nipple line is anatomically consistent and easily identifiable, making it the ideal landmark for accurate measurements. Rationale: A: Sternal notch is not recommended for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not a consistent landmark and may vary among individuals. C: Xiphoid process is not suitable for chest circumference measurement as it is located at the lower end of the sternum and not commonly used for this purpose. D: Fifth intercostal space is not a recommended landmark for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not as reliable and consistent as the nipple line.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Tocolytic therapy is used to delay preterm labor and prevent premature birth. 2. Administering tocolytic therapy at 26 weeks of gestation allows time for corticosteroids to enhance fetal lung maturity. 3. Delaying labor at this stage can improve neonatal outcomes. 4. Other choices are incorrect because tocolytic therapy is not indicated for fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy.
Question 4 of 9
A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin. Decelerations starting at the peak of contractions indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be caused by hyperstimulation from oxytocin. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help alleviate this issue and improve fetal oxygenation. Choice A would not address the underlying cause of the decelerations. Choice C would worsen the hyperstimulation. Choice D is not directly related to the fetal heart rate decelerations.
Question 5 of 9
A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C, having the client pant during the next contractions, is the correct answer. At 7 cm dilation with a sudden urge to push, it indicates possible fetal descent. Panting can help prevent rapid descent and reducing the risk of cervical edema or injury. It allows time for the cervix to dilate fully before pushing, preventing premature pushing and potential complications. Option A is not a priority at this stage. Option B is incorrect as observing for crowning might lead to premature pushing. Option D is not necessary as voiding is not the priority right now.
Question 6 of 9
A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rubella immunization should be given shortly after giving birth to prevent any potential harm to the fetus during pregnancy. Immunization during pregnancy is contraindicated to avoid any risk of harm to the developing baby. Option B is incorrect as immunization in the third trimester can still pose a risk to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as immediate immunization during pregnancy is not recommended. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current fetus.
Question 7 of 9
While observing the electronic fetal heart rate monitor tracing for a client at 40 weeks of gestation in labor, a nurse should suspect a problem with the umbilical cord when she observes which of the following patterns?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate that coincide with contractions, indicating umbilical cord compression. This pattern can lead to fetal hypoxia and distress. Early decelerations (A) are gradual decreases in heart rate that mirror contractions and are considered benign. Accelerations (B) are increases in heart rate and are a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. Late decelerations (C) are gradual decreases in heart rate that occur after the peak of a contraction, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (15 to 25 pounds) because this recommendation aligns with the guidelines for weight gain during pregnancy for a client with a BMI of 26.5. The Institute of Medicine recommends this weight gain range for individuals in the overweight category. It is important to strike a balance between gaining enough weight to support the health of the fetus and not gaining excess weight that may lead to complications. Choice A (11 to 20 pounds) may not provide enough weight gain for optimal pregnancy outcomes, while choice C (25 to 35 pounds) may lead to excessive weight gain. Choice D (1 pound per week) is too specific and does not account for individual variations in weight gain patterns during pregnancy. It is crucial to tailor weight gain recommendations based on the client's BMI to ensure a healthy pregnancy.
Question 9 of 9
A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1. This ratio indicates fetal lung maturity as it signifies adequate production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, essential for proper lung function after birth. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) (Choice A) indicates immaturity, Biophysical profile score of 8 (Choice B) assesses overall fetal well-being, not lung maturity, and Reactive nonstress test (Choice D) evaluates fetal well-being, not lung maturity. The L/S ratio of 2:1 is the most reliable indicator of fetal lung maturity.