A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Kegel exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can aid in pelvic muscle stretching during birth. This can potentially reduce the risk of pelvic floor dysfunction postpartum. A is incorrect because Kegel exercises do not directly prevent constipation. C is incorrect because while Kegel exercises may indirectly help with backaches by improving pelvic floor muscle support, they are not specifically targeted for backache relief. D is incorrect as Kegel exercises do not prevent stretch marks, as stretch marks are related to skin elasticity rather than muscle tone.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to evaluate the firmness of the uterus. This is because the client's low blood pressure may indicate postpartum hemorrhage, which is a common complication after childbirth. Assessing the firmness of the uterus helps determine if there is uterine atony, a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. By addressing uterine atony promptly, the nurse can prevent further blood loss and stabilize the client's condition. Summary: - Option B, initiating oxygen therapy, is not the first priority as the client's low blood pressure is likely due to hemorrhage rather than hypoxemia. - Option C, administering oxytocin infusion, may be necessary to address uterine atony but should only be done after assessing the firmness of the uterus. - Option D, obtaining a type and crossmatch, is important for potential blood transfusion but is not the immediate priority compared to assessing for uterine atony.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating a client with severe preeclampsia can be risky due to the potential for sudden worsening of symptoms and complications like seizures. It is important to prioritize rest and close monitoring in such cases. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour (A) is crucial as changes can indicate neurological involvement. Obtaining a daily weight (B) helps monitor fluid status. Continuous fetal monitoring (C) is necessary to assess the well-being of the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. In summary, ambulating the client with severe preeclampsia is the most concerning order as it may pose a significant risk to both the client and the fetus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, abruptio placentae. This condition is characterized by sudden onset of continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, common at 36 weeks gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension. It occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Placenta previa (A) presents painless bleeding, prolapsed cord (B) involves cord presenting before the fetus, and incompetent cervix (C) leads to painless dilation of the cervix. Thus, abruptio placentae is the most likely complication in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During a Leopold maneuver, if the healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position, it means the fetal back is on the right side, and the small parts are on the left side, indicating a breech presentation. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Breech. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Vertex refers to the head-first position. B: Shoulder presentation would involve feeling the shoulder first during the maneuver. D: Mentum presentation would involve feeling the chin first, which is not the case in an RSA position.