A pediatric nurse is working with an interdisciplinary team and parents to care for a 6-month-old client who has recently been diagnosed with severe combined immune deficiency (SCID). Which treatment is likely of most benefit to this client's type of primary immune deficiency disease (PIDD)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). In SCID, there is a deficiency in immune cell development. HSCT replaces defective stem cells with healthy ones, restoring immune function. Radiotherapy and chemotherapy (option A) can further weaken the immune system. Antibiotic therapy (option B) treats infections but doesn't address the underlying immune deficiency. Colony-stimulating factors (option D) are used to stimulate production of specific blood cells, not a comprehensive immune system reconstitution like HSCT.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Attachment. This phase in the HIV life cycle involves the fusion of HIV glycoproteins with the client's CD4+ T-cell membranes. This initial step allows the virus to bind to the host cell and gain entry for further infection. Integration (A) refers to the stage where the viral DNA is inserted into the host cell genome. Cleavage (C) involves the processing of viral proteins by host cell enzymes. Budding (D) is the final step where new viral particles are released from the host cell membrane. Thus, the fusion of glycoproteins with the host cell membrane is specifically known as the Attachment phase.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because swelling and redness at the biopsy site can indicate infection, which is a serious concern post-procedure. Red streaks (B) also suggest infection, but swelling and redness are more immediate signs. A low-grade fever (C) is common after a biopsy and may not necessarily indicate a problem. Pain (D) is expected after a biopsy and doesn't necessarily signify a complication. Therefore, choice A is the most concerning symptom that requires prompt attention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because when excessive bleeding occurs, the volume of blood in the blood vessels decreases, causing a drop in blood pressure. This is due to the insufficient amount of fluid left in the blood vessels to maintain normal blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because an increased oxygen supply would not directly cause a drop in blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in iron in the blood would not directly affect blood pressure in the context of excessive bleeding. Choice D is incorrect as an increase in red blood cell production may help compensate for blood loss but would not cause a drop in blood pressure directly.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stem cell transplantation. Stem cell transplantation is considered the standard treatment for aplastic anemia as it aims to replace the dysfunctional bone marrow with healthy stem cells to restore blood cell production. This procedure has the potential to cure aplastic anemia by providing a source of healthy cells that can differentiate into all blood cell types. Antithymocyte globulin (A) and cyclosporine (B) are commonly used immunosuppressive therapies to help manage the condition but do not offer a curative effect. Transfusions (D) are used to alleviate symptoms of aplastic anemia by providing necessary blood components but do not address the underlying cause of the disease.