A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What is the priority nursing action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer regular insulin intravenously. In DKA, the priority is to lower blood glucose levels and correct acidosis. Regular insulin intravenously is the fastest way to reduce blood glucose levels. Oral hypoglycemic agents (B) are not effective in DKA. Sodium bicarbonate (C) is not routinely recommended in DKA as it may worsen acidosis. Providing a high-calorie diet (D) is not appropriate as the focus should be on treating the underlying condition first.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Statins can cause muscle pain or weakness as a side effect. Step 2: Prompt reporting of muscle pain or weakness is crucial to address potential myopathy or rhabdomyolysis. Step 3: Nurse should educate patient to report any muscle symptoms promptly for timely intervention and prevention of complications. Summary: Option B is correct as it emphasizes the importance of monitoring and reporting potential side effects of statins. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as taking with food, increasing grapefruit juice intake, and avoiding potassium-rich foods are not relevant considerations for statin therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine that can lead to respiratory arrest. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further complications, such as hypoxia and respiratory failure. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not life-threatening like respiratory depression. Monitoring and managing respiratory status is the top priority to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption. Sevelamer (RenaGel) is a phosphate binder used in ESRD to reduce phosphorus levels. Taking it with meals allows it to bind with phosphorus in food, preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in controlling hyperphosphatemia, a common complication in ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as RenaGel does not prevent indigestion, promote stomach emptying, or buffer hydrochloric acid.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit foods high in protein. Levodopa competes with amino acids for absorption in the small intestine, so consuming high-protein foods can reduce its effectiveness. Limiting protein intake can help maximize the absorption and efficacy of levodopa. Increasing vitamin C (option A) is not directly related to levodopa metabolism. Avoiding fiber (option C) is not necessary for levodopa therapy. Increasing sodium intake (option D) is not indicated for levodopa treatment in Parkinson's disease.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The patient with a sibling having newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease may need a referral for genetic testing. Polycystic kidney disease has a genetic component, so there is a higher likelihood of the patient also having the condition. Referral for genetic testing can help in early diagnosis, management, and counseling for the patient and their family members. Choice A is incorrect because strokes in maternal grandparents at advanced ages are not typically indicative of a need for genetic testing. Choice B is incorrect as cerebral palsy is not typically a genetic condition related to the patient's pregnancy test result. Choice D is incorrect as dyspnea in a smoking patient is more likely related to respiratory issues such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease rather than a genetic condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Correct answer is B (Low-sodium diet) for cirrhosis because sodium can worsen fluid retention and increase ascites. A (Low-protein diet) is not necessary unless hepatic encephalopathy is present. C (High-fiber diet) can help with constipation but not a primary concern. D (High-calcium diet) is not a priority for cirrhosis management.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary cause of jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis is increased bilirubin levels. Liver cirrhosis impairs the liver's ability to process bilirubin, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream. This excess bilirubin then causes the yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes characteristic of jaundice. Incorrect Choices: A: Decreased bile production is not the primary cause of jaundice in liver cirrhosis. While decreased bile flow may contribute to jaundice, it is secondary to the impaired bilirubin processing. C: Hepatic inflammation is a common feature of liver cirrhosis but is not the direct cause of jaundice in this context. D: Portal hypertension is a complication of liver cirrhosis but is not the primary cause of jaundice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right upper quadrant pain. Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, typically caused by gallstones. The gallbladder is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is a common symptom. The pain may also radiate to the back or right shoulder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not typically align with the specific location of the gallbladder or the characteristic pain associated with cholecystitis.