ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to administer regular insulin intravenously. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels and correct acidosis, which are critical in managing DKA. Oral hypoglycemic agents are not appropriate in the acute setting of DKA as they may not work quickly enough. Sodium bicarbonate may be used in some cases to correct acidosis, but insulin administration takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is not appropriate initially in DKA management, as the focus is on stabilizing the patient's condition through insulin therapy and fluid/electrolyte correction.
Question 2 of 9
What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The High Fowler's position is the most appropriate position for a patient with COPD experiencing severe dyspnea. This position helps improve lung expansion and reduce dyspnea by allowing the diaphragm to move more freely and increasing the efficiency of breathing. It also helps reduce the work of breathing and enhances oxygenation in patients with COPD.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the patient for the procedure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct preparation for a paracentesis in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites includes having the patient void immediately before the procedure. This is important to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the paracentesis. Positioning for a paracentesis is typically upright or semi-Fowler's, not flat in bed. Administering a full liquid diet or encouraging ambulation for 30 minutes are not directly related to preparing a patient for a paracentesis procedure.
Question 5 of 9
A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding. Which laboratory test is most important to monitor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) is crucial as it assesses the blood's ability to clot. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired liver function, affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, hence increasing the risk of bleeding. Maintaining a close watch on PT levels helps in timely intervention to prevent excessive bleeding episodes.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory test that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is best taken before meals for optimal effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and promoting ulcer healing. Taking it before meals allows the medication to act on the proton pumps before food intake triggers acid production, thereby maximizing its therapeutic benefits.
Question 8 of 9
A patient who is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops thrombocytopenia. What should the nurse include in the care plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. To minimize this risk, patients with thrombocytopenia should avoid activities that can cause injury or bleeding, such as intramuscular injections. Encouraging light exercise can be beneficial, as it promotes circulation without increasing the risk of trauma. Aspirin should be avoided as it can further impair platelet function. Additionally, using a soft toothbrush for oral care is recommended to prevent gum bleeding in patients with thrombocytopenia.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with tuberculosis is started on rifampin. What advice should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct advice for a patient starting rifampin is to expect orange-red discoloration of body fluids. Rifampin can cause harmless orange-red discoloration of body fluids, which may include urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. It is important for the patient to be aware of this side effect as it can stain clothing and contact lenses. Limiting intake of green leafy vegetables is not necessary with rifampin. Avoiding exposure to sunlight is more commonly associated with other medications like tetracyclines. Taking rifampin with antacids is not recommended as antacids can reduce the absorption of rifampin.