A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin due to its slow and consistent release, providing basal insulin coverage for about 24 hours. This steady release mimics the body's natural basal insulin secretion pattern. Rapid-acting insulins (A) work quickly to control postprandial glucose levels. Intermediate-acting insulins (B) have a slower onset and last for a moderate duration. Short-acting insulins (D) act quickly but have a shorter duration of action compared to long-acting insulins.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change the patch every 72 hours. Fentanyl patches are typically designed to be worn for 72 hours before being replaced to maintain consistent pain relief. Changing the patch on time helps prevent withdrawal symptoms and ensures the effectiveness of the medication. A: Applying the patch to a different site each time is important to prevent skin irritation but is not the most crucial instruction. C: Avoiding heating pads over the patch is important to prevent overheating and excessive absorption of the medication, but changing the patch timely is more critical. D: Removing the patch before showering is not necessary as fentanyl patches are designed to be water-resistant.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of DVT is the absence of regular INR monitoring required with rivaroxaban. This is because rivaroxaban is a direct oral anticoagulant with more predictable pharmacokinetics, eliminating the need for monitoring. Regular INR monitoring is necessary with warfarin to ensure the drug is within the therapeutic range, which can be burdensome for patients and healthcare providers. The other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary advantage of rivaroxaban over warfarin for this specific patient population.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival overgrowth as a side effect. This is due to its effect on fibroblasts in the gums, leading to increased connective tissue production. Hypotension (A), bradycardia (C), and hyperkalemia (D) are not common side effects of phenytoin. Monitoring for gingival hyperplasia is crucial to prevent complications such as difficulty in eating, speaking, and maintaining oral hygiene.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol is to prevent asthma attacks. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist that helps to relax the muscles of the airways over an extended period, reducing the likelihood of bronchospasms and asthma exacerbations. It is not used for relieving acute bronchospasm (choice A), suppressing cough (choice C), or thinning respiratory secretions (choice D) as these are not the main therapeutic effects of salmeterol in asthma management.