A patient with hookworm infestation may present with which of the following types of anemia:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iron deficiency anemia. Hookworm infection can lead to iron deficiency anemia by causing blood loss in the gastrointestinal tract. Hookworms feed on blood in the intestines, leading to chronic blood loss and subsequent iron deficiency. This type of anemia is characterized by low iron levels in the body, resulting in decreased production of hemoglobin and red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia (choice A) is caused by premature destruction of red blood cells, not blood loss. Megaloblastic anemia (choice C) is typically due to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency, not related to hookworm infestation. Aplastic anemia (choice D) is a condition where the bone marrow does not produce enough blood cells, not directly caused by hookworm infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quickly assess the client's respiratory status. An anaphylactic reaction can lead to severe respiratory distress, such as bronchospasm or swelling of the airways, which can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory status allows for prompt identification of any breathing difficulties and immediate intervention if needed. Leaving the client to contact a PHCP (A) may waste critical time. Administering oxygen (B) may be necessary but assessing the respiratory status should come first. Keeping the client supine regardless of blood pressure readings (D) is not appropriate as positioning should be based on the client's condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because recording the site, date, and time of the test is crucial for documentation and tracking purposes. This information helps monitor for any delayed reactions and ensures proper follow-up. Choice B is incorrect as clients should be educated to report any reaction immediately, not just return for inspection. Choice C is incorrect because monitoring the client for an allergic reaction should occur for at least 15-30 minutes, not 1 to 2 hours. Choice D is incorrect as estimating the size of the wheal is not necessary for postprocedure interventions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Colonoscopy. This is the best next step in evaluation for this patient because the presentation suggests iron deficiency anemia. The low serum iron, high iron-binding capacity, and low ferritin levels are consistent with this diagnosis. Colonoscopy is indicated to rule out gastrointestinal bleeding as the cause of iron deficiency anemia in a middle-aged man with no other obvious etiology. Red blood cell folate (choice A) and serum lead levels (choice B) are not indicated based on the clinical presentation. Bone marrow examination (choice D) is not needed at this point as the likely cause of anemia is iron deficiency related to possible gastrointestinal bleeding.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Choice A (Pelvic ultrasound): - Pelvic ultrasound is the most appropriate initial step for evaluating a 50-year-old woman with abdominal and adnexal fullness to assess for gynecologic issues like ovarian cysts, fibroids, or tumors. - It is non-invasive, cost-effective, and can provide valuable information about the structures in the pelvis. - It helps to visualize the ovaries and uterus, guiding further management decisions based on the findings. Summary of other choices: - Choice B (CA-125 antigen levels): While CA-125 is a tumor marker often elevated in ovarian cancer, it is not specific and can be elevated in other conditions. It is not the initial step in this case. - Choice C (Surgery): Surgery should not be the first step without proper diagnostic evaluation with imaging studies. - Choice D (CT scan of abdomen): CT scan may provide detailed information but is not the initial diagnostic modality for evaluating adnexal full