A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease heart rate. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate. This helps reduce the workload of the heart and improve its efficiency in patients with heart failure. Choice A is incorrect because carvedilol may not necessarily increase cardiac output directly. Choice B is incorrect because carvedilol focuses more on improving heart function rather than directly reducing fluid retention. Choice D is incorrect because while carvedilol may lower blood pressure as a secondary effect, its primary purpose in heart failure is to improve cardiac function by decreasing heart rate.

Question 2 of 9

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving prednisone (Deltasone). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infection. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the immune system, increasing the risk of infections in patients. The nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as fever, increased white blood cell count, and localized symptoms. Rationale: A: Hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone typically causes hyperglycemia. C: Hypotension is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone can actually cause fluid retention and increased blood pressure. D: Weight loss is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone can actually cause weight gain due to fluid retention and increased appetite.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relieve neuropathic pain. Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. It is effective in conditions such as diabetic neuropathy and postherpetic neuralgia. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin does not have anti-inflammatory properties. Choice C is incorrect as gabapentin does not enhance opioid analgesia, but it can be used in conjunction with opioids for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as gabapentin is not indicated for cough suppression.

Question 4 of 9

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is an important teaching point for the nurse to provide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take folic acid supplements as prescribed. Methotrexate can lead to folic acid deficiency, causing side effects. Supplementing with folic acid can help manage these side effects. It is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of taking folic acid as prescribed to prevent adverse effects. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Avoid alcohol completely - While alcohol should be limited or avoided due to potential liver toxicity with methotrexate, complete avoidance may not be necessary for all patients. C: Expect to see immediate results - Methotrexate takes time to work, and patients should not expect immediate results. Patience is necessary. D: Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day - There is no specific guideline to limit fluid intake with methotrexate. Adequate hydration is important for overall health.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with glaucoma is prescribed timolol eye drops. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce intraocular pressure. Timolol is a beta-blocker that works by decreasing the production of aqueous humor in the eye, thereby reducing intraocular pressure. This action helps to prevent damage to the optic nerve in patients with glaucoma. Choices B and C are incorrect because timolol does not affect pupil size. Choice D is incorrect because timolol does not enhance tear production; in fact, it may have a drying effect on the eyes.

Question 6 of 9

The charge nurse observes that a client with a nasogastric tube on low intermittent suction is drinking a glass of water immediately after the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) left the room. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP. The rationale is as follows: 1) Drinking water with low intermittent suction can cause complications. 2) Immediate action is necessary to prevent harm. 3) Speaking to the UAP clarifies the situation and provides education. 4) Removing the glass of water ensures the client's safety. Incorrect choices: B: Discussing at the end of the day delays action and puts the client at risk. C: Writing an incident report is important, but immediate intervention is needed first. D: Reminding the client of electrolyte imbalance does not address the current issue of drinking water with a nasogastric tube.

Question 7 of 9

What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary action of digoxin in heart failure is to strengthen cardiac contractions. Digoxin inhibits the sodium-potassium pump, leading to an increase in intracellular calcium levels, which enhances the force of myocardial contractions. This helps improve cardiac output and symptoms of heart failure. Explanation: A: Incorrect - Digoxin does not increase heart rate, it mainly affects the strength of contractions. B: Incorrect - Digoxin does not decrease cardiac output; it actually helps improve it by enhancing contractility. D: Incorrect - Digoxin may have a slight effect on lowering blood pressure, but its primary action in heart failure is to strengthen cardiac contractions, not lower blood pressure.

Question 8 of 9

The healthcare provider prescribes 15 mg/kg of Streptomycin for an infant weighing 4 pounds. The drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W to run over 8 hours. How much Streptomycin will the infant receive?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose of Streptomycin, we first need to convert the infant's weight from pounds to kg (4 lbs = 1.81 kg). Then, we multiply the weight in kg by the prescribed dose (15 mg/kg) to get the total dose (1.81 kg * 15 mg/kg = 27.15 mg). Since the drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W, the infant will receive 27.15 mg in 25 ml solution. To find how much Streptomycin the infant actually receives, we need to calculate the amount in 1 ml (27.15 mg / 25 ml = 1.086 mg/ml). Finally, to determine how much the infant will receive over 8 hours, we multiply the concentration by the infusion rate (1.086 mg/ml * 25 ml * 8 hours = 217.2 mg). Therefore, the correct answer is A: 9 mg, as it represents the amount

Question 9 of 9

While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately. The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, as evidenced by decreased deep tendon reflexes, bradypnea (respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute), oliguria (urinary output of 90 ml in 4 hours), and elevated magnesium sulfate level of 9 mg/dl. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications such as respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and central nervous system depression. Continuing the infusion (choice A) would worsen the toxicity. Decreasing the infusion (choice B) may not be sufficient to address the toxicity. Administering calcium gluconate (choice D) is not the immediate priority; stopping the magnesium sulfate infusion is essential to prevent further harm.

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