A patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated with intravenous morphine. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to this patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason for administering morphine to a patient with MI is to reduce cardiac workload. Morphine acts as a vasodilator and decreases preload and afterload on the heart, reducing myocardial oxygen demand. This helps to improve coronary blood flow and decrease the workload on the heart muscle, which is crucial in the setting of an MI. Explanation for other choices: A: While morphine can help reduce pain in MI, the primary reason for administering it is to reduce cardiac workload. B: Morphine may have a calming effect, but the primary goal is to reduce cardiac workload. D: Morphine can actually decrease respiratory rate as a side effect, making this choice incorrect.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rotate injection sites within the same region. This is important to prevent lipohypertrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Administering insulin at the same site each time (B) can lead to tissue damage. Storing insulin in the freezer (A) can alter its effectiveness. Shaking the vial vigorously (D) can cause air bubbles and affect insulin dosage accuracy. Rotation of injection sites within the same region is crucial for consistent absorption and preventing complications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. High calcium levels can lead to dehydration, so encouraging fluid intake helps prevent this complication. Increased fluid intake also promotes calcium excretion through urine. Bed rest (A) is not directly related to managing high calcium levels. Auscultating lung sounds (B) every 4 hours is more relevant for respiratory issues. Monitoring for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs (C) is associated with low calcium levels, not high levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Report any vision changes immediately. This is crucial because hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal toxicity, which may lead to irreversible vision loss. Monitoring for vision changes allows for early detection and intervention. Choice B is incorrect as hydroxychloroquine is typically taken with food or milk to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is irrelevant as there is no specific dietary restriction for hydroxychloroquine. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no evidence to support increasing green leafy vegetable intake in relation to hydroxychloroquine therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High Fowler's. This position helps improve lung expansion and breathing efficiency by maximizing chest expansion. Sitting upright reduces pressure on the diaphragm, allowing for better ventilation. Supine (A) position can worsen dyspnea by restricting lung expansion. Prone (B) position is not ideal for COPD patients as it can hinder breathing. Trendelenburg (D) position, where the patient's feet are elevated above the head, can increase pressure on the diaphragm and impair breathing, making it inappropriate for a patient experiencing severe dyspnea.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C, hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in CKD patients with anemia. Monitoring hemoglobin levels helps assess the effectiveness of the therapy in improving anemia. If hemoglobin levels increase, it indicates the therapy is working. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Serum creatinine - This measures kidney function, not the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for anemia in CKD patients. B: White blood cell count - Monitors immune function, not related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. D: Serum potassium - Important for monitoring electrolyte balance in CKD patients but not specific to assessing erythropoietin therapy effectiveness.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The mother who took her children from school because aliens were after them should be seen first. This choice indicates potential harm to the children due to the mother's delusions, posing an immediate safety concern. The nurse needs to assess the situation and ensure the children's safety. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety risks. B is a history of substance abuse but no current immediate danger. C is newly diagnosed and can wait for evaluation, as can D who may need support but is not in immediate danger. Prioritizing safety is crucial in mental health nursing.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) like albuterol act by stimulating beta2 receptors in the airway smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation and relieving bronchospasm. This helps to quickly open up the airways during an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A is incorrect because SABAs do not directly reduce inflammation. Choice C is incorrect as SABAs do not affect respiratory secretions. Choice D is incorrect as SABAs do not suppress cough but rather target bronchospasm.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Tis refers to carcinoma in situ, meaning the cancer is limited to the surface layer of cells in the cervix. 2. N0 indicates no regional lymph node involvement. 3. M0 indicates no distant metastasis. 4. Therefore, the cancer is localized only to the cervix, making answer A correct. Summary: B: Incorrect - Does not address the staging information provided in Tis, N0, M0. C: Incorrect - The staging information is already provided, and further testing may not be necessary at this stage. D: Incorrect - Staging information does not indicate difficulty in determining the original site of the cancer.