ATI LPN
Cardiovascular Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a large non-functioning pituitary macroadenoma is found to have pan-hypopituitarism. He has had orthostasis, nausea, and weight loss for 8-12 months. Which of these would be most consistent with this?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pan-hypopituitarism from a large pituitary macroadenoma impairs multiple hormone axes, including TSH secretion, leading to secondary hypothyroidism (low or normal TSH with low free T4). Visual field defects are possible but less specific here, and hypergonadotropic hypogonadism is incorrect as LH would be low.
Question 2 of 5
48 yo woman with lung cancer presents with onset of weakness in her legs and falls. She has been having difficulty with losing control of urine. On motor exam, she presents with bilateral arm/leg weakness with increased tone. The most appropriate test would be:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spinal cord compression from metastasis (lung cancer) is suspected with upper motor neuron signs and incontinence, requiring cervical-thoracic MRI.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following attributes is associated with a relatively low risk for treatment-related toxicity?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Younger age is associated with better tolerance to treatment due to greater physiological reserve, unlike prior therapy or poor performance status, which increase toxicity risk. 'Discontinue treatment' is not an attribute.
Question 4 of 5
In counseling a newly diagnosed HIV+ patient, which of the following comments are most accurate(based on current data)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current data supports that HIV+ individuals can achieve a normal to near-normal lifespan with effective therapy.
Question 5 of 5
Woman presents with belly pain. She was taking acetaminophen 4 g/d for 7 days. PMH PVD. PE + tenderness no rebound. Labs: Na 138, K 4.9, Cl 102, HCO3 7, creatinine 1.4, glucose, serum osmolarity 295, lactate 2.5. ABG: pH 7.17, PCO2 of 18; UA: pH of 5.5, tr ketones. Surgery revealed no IBD. Which ONE of the following is the MOST likely cause of the metabolic acidosis in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to pyroglutamic acidosis, especially at high doses, causing severe anion gap metabolic acidosis.