A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin. Decelerations starting at the peak of contractions indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be caused by hyperstimulation from oxytocin. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help alleviate this issue and improve fetal oxygenation. Choice A would not address the underlying cause of the decelerations. Choice C would worsen the hyperstimulation. Choice D is not directly related to the fetal heart rate decelerations.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. This is the priority assessment because a newborn's ability to breathe is crucial for survival. Immediate evaluation of respiratory status is essential to ensure the baby is receiving adequate oxygenation. Hypothermia (choice B) can be addressed after addressing any respiratory issues. Accidental lacerations (choice C) are important but not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Acrocyanosis (choice D) is a common finding in newborns and does not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because implantation actually occurs around 6-10 days after fertilization, not after conception. This is a critical distinction as conception refers to the union of sperm and egg to form a zygote, while fertilization specifically refers to the fusion of the genetic material. Therefore, the statement by the newly licensed nurse is inaccurate and requires intervention. A: Fertilization typically occurs in the outer third of the fallopian tube, making this statement correct. C: Sperm can indeed remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days, indicating this statement is accurate. D: Bleeding or spotting can indeed accompany implantation, making this statement correct. In summary, choice B is incorrect because implantation occurs around 6-10 days after fertilization, not conception. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements related to conception and fertilization.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the indirect Coombs test is used to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In this scenario, the mother is Rh-negative, so if she has been sensitized to Rh-positive blood during childbirth, her immune system may produce antibodies that could potentially harm future Rh-positive pregnancies. This test helps identify the presence of these antibodies early on so appropriate interventions can be initiated to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: This test does not determine if kernicterus will occur in the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe complication of jaundice, which may result from hemolytic disease of the newborn if untreated. B: The indirect Coombs test does not detect Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. It specifically looks for Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. D: The test does not determine the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood. It focuses on detecting antibodies in

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Frank breech. In a frank breech position, the buttocks of the fetus are presenting first, which is why the fetal heart tones can be heard above the umbilicus at midline. In this position, the feet are near the head, causing the buttocks to be the presenting part. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in a cephalic position, the head would be presenting, in a transverse position, the baby would be lying sideways, and in a posterior position, the baby's back would be against the mother's back.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence of maternal changes when planning to become pregnant is A) Amenorrhea, C) Goodell's sign, D) Quickening, and B) Lightening. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation, indicating possible pregnancy. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix and vagina. Quickening is the first fetal movements felt by the mother. Lightening occurs as the baby drops lower into the pelvis. This sequence reflects the chronological order of physiological changes during pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C do not follow the correct sequence of maternal changes as outlined in pregnancy progression.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nipple line. This landmark is used for measuring newborn chest circumference as it ensures consistency in measurement and is a reliable reference point. The nipple line is anatomically consistent and easily identifiable, making it the ideal landmark for accurate measurements. Rationale: A: Sternal notch is not recommended for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not a consistent landmark and may vary among individuals. C: Xiphoid process is not suitable for chest circumference measurement as it is located at the lower end of the sternum and not commonly used for this purpose. D: Fifth intercostal space is not a recommended landmark for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not as reliable and consistent as the nipple line.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin. Decelerations starting at the peak of contractions indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be caused by hyperstimulation from oxytocin. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help alleviate this issue and improve fetal oxygenation. Choice A would not address the underlying cause of the decelerations. Choice C would worsen the hyperstimulation. Choice D is not directly related to the fetal heart rate decelerations.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Tocolytic therapy is used to delay preterm labor and prevent premature birth. 2. Administering tocolytic therapy at 26 weeks of gestation allows time for corticosteroids to enhance fetal lung maturity. 3. Delaying labor at this stage can improve neonatal outcomes. 4. Other choices are incorrect because tocolytic therapy is not indicated for fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy.