A patient is taking Digoxin. Prior to administration you check the patient's apical pulse and find it to be 61 bpm. Morning lab values are the following: K+ 3.3 and Digoxin level of 5 ng/mL. Which of the following is the correct nursing action?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient is taking Digoxin. Prior to administration you check the patient's apical pulse and find it to be 61 bpm. Morning lab values are the following: K+ 3.3 and Digoxin level of 5 ng/mL. Which of the following is the correct nursing action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A Digoxin level of 5 ng/mL indicates toxicity (>2 ng/mL); hold the dose and notify the physician (C).

Question 2 of 5

An older patient has been diagnosed with possible white coat hypertension. Which action will the nurse plan to take next?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Having the patient self-monitor BPs at home will provide a reliable indication about whether the patient has hypertension. Regular BP checks in the clinic are likely to be high in a patient with white coat hypertension. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring may be used if the data from self-monitoring are unclear. Although elevated stress levels may contribute to hypertension, instructing the patient about this is unlikely to reduce BP.

Question 3 of 5

A patient in a hypertensive emergency is admitted to the ICU. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with IV vasodilators, and that the primary goal of treatment is what?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Initially, the treatment goal in hypertensive emergencies is to reduce the mean arterial pressure by 25 % in the first hour of treatment, with further reduction over the next 24 hours. Lowering the BP too fast may cause hypotension in a patient whose body has adjusted to hypertension and could cause a stroke, MI, or visual changes. Neurologic symptoms should be addressed, but this is not the primary focus of treatment planning.

Question 4 of 5

A 55-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine check-up. The patient's BP is 159/100 mm Hg and the physician diagnoses hypertension after referring to previous readings. The patient asks why it is important to treat hypertension. What would be the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Hypertension, particularly elevated systolic BP, increases the risk of death, stroke, and heart failure in people older than 50 years. Hypertension is not a direct precursor to pulmonary emboli, and it does not put older adults at increased risk of type 1 diabetes or cancer. It is not the leading cause of death in people 55 years of age.

Question 5 of 5

Abnormalities causing ECG changes in myocardial infarction include:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Delayed depolarisation occurs in myocardial infarction due to ischemic damage affecting the conduction system.

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