ATI LPN
Renal System Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels. Which bowel preparation order would the nurse question for this patient who is scheduled for a renal arteriogram?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fleet enemas are high in phosphate, risky with renal failure as it can't be excreted.
Question 2 of 9
Litho means?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Litho- indicates stone, as in kidney stones.
Question 3 of 9
Complete the following sentence correctly. Angiotensin II
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Angiotensin II triggers aldosterone release from adrenal glands.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a hospitalized patient with a decreased glomerular filtration rate who is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which action will be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients with impaired renal function are at risk for decreased renal function after IVP because the contrast medium used is nephrotoxic, so the nurse should monitor the patient's urine output. MAC sedation and retention catheterization are not required for the procedure. The contrast medium is given IV, not orally.
Question 5 of 9
Urine with a high concentration of C₆Hâ‚â‚‚O₆ is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: C₆Hâ‚â‚‚O₆ (glucose) in urine (D) is abnormal (glycosuria) as it's filtered and reabsorbed, not secreted, unless the threshold is exceeded (e.g., diabetes). Normal (A, B) or secreted (C) options misalign, making D correct.
Question 6 of 9
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) arrives at the emergency department reporting shortness of breath upon exertion. What should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) experiencing shortness of breath upon exertion, the nurse should first assess blood pressure. CKD often leads to fluid overload and hypertension due to impaired kidney function, which can exacerbate pulmonary edema and cause dyspnea. Elevated blood pressure can directly contribute to cardiac workload and respiratory distress, making it a critical initial assessment. While respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and heart rate are also important, blood pressure provides immediate insight into the underlying cause and guides subsequent interventions, such as administering antihypertensive or diuretic therapy.
Question 7 of 9
Match the description 'Passively permeable to water under ADH stimulation' to the structure: A) proximal convoluted tubule, B) descending limb of the nephron loop, C) collecting duct, D) ascending limb of the nephron loop.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The collecting duct (C) becomes water-permeable with ADH via aquaporin-2, concentrating urine. The proximal tubule (A) and descending limb (B) are always permeable, and ascending limb (D) is not, making C the ADH-dependent match.
Question 8 of 9
After completing a thorough neurological and physical assessment of a patient who is admitted for a suspected stroke, the medical-surgical nurse anticipates the next step in the immediate care of this patient will include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a suspected stroke, a CT scan without contrast (B) is the immediate next step to differentiate ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke, guiding treatment (e.g., tPA within 4.5 hours for ischemic). tPA (A) requires CT confirmation, neurosurgery (C) or Doppler (D) follows diagnosis, making B the critical diagnostic priority.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse contributes to the plan of care for a patient who has edema. Which of the following is the best indicator of a patient's fluid volume status?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Daily weight (C) is the best fluid volume indicator, reflecting gains/losses precisely (1 kg = 1 L). I&O (A) is less accurate, vital signs (B) are indirect, and turgor (D) is unreliable with edema, making C the top measure.