ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing extra blankets from the baby's crib reduces the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby on the stomach (Option A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Option C) can also increase the risk of suffocation. Placing the crib next to a heater (Option D) can lead to overheating and poses a fire hazard. Removing extra blankets ensures a safe sleep environment for the baby.
Question 2 of 9
A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (15 to 25 pounds) because this recommendation aligns with the guidelines for weight gain during pregnancy for a client with a BMI of 26.5. The Institute of Medicine recommends this weight gain range for individuals in the overweight category. It is important to strike a balance between gaining enough weight to support the health of the fetus and not gaining excess weight that may lead to complications. Choice A (11 to 20 pounds) may not provide enough weight gain for optimal pregnancy outcomes, while choice C (25 to 35 pounds) may lead to excessive weight gain. Choice D (1 pound per week) is too specific and does not account for individual variations in weight gain patterns during pregnancy. It is crucial to tailor weight gain recommendations based on the client's BMI to ensure a healthy pregnancy.
Question 3 of 9
A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless red vaginal bleeding. This finding supports the diagnosis of placenta previa due to the characteristic symptom of painless bleeding in the third trimester. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to dilate. The other choices are incorrect because increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus (B) may indicate placental abruption, abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding (C) is not typical of placenta previa, and intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus (D) is more suggestive of preterm labor or bloody show.
Question 4 of 9
A client who is at 40 weeks gestation and in active labor has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The client's blood pressure reading is 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assist the client to turn onto her side. This intervention is essential to improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, thus helping to increase blood pressure and prevent hypotension. Turning the client onto her side can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, allowing for better circulation. A: Preparing for a cesarean birth is not indicated based solely on the client's blood pressure reading. B: Assisting the client to an upright position may worsen hypotension as it can further decrease blood flow to the placenta. C: Preparing for an immediate vaginal delivery is not necessary solely based on the client's blood pressure reading.
Question 5 of 9
A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1. This ratio indicates fetal lung maturity as it signifies adequate production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, essential for proper lung function after birth. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) (Choice A) indicates immaturity, Biophysical profile score of 8 (Choice B) assesses overall fetal well-being, not lung maturity, and Reactive nonstress test (Choice D) evaluates fetal well-being, not lung maturity. The L/S ratio of 2:1 is the most reliable indicator of fetal lung maturity.
Question 6 of 9
A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the indirect Coombs test is used to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In this scenario, the mother is Rh-negative, so if she has been sensitized to Rh-positive blood during childbirth, her immune system may produce antibodies that could potentially harm future Rh-positive pregnancies. This test helps identify the presence of these antibodies early on so appropriate interventions can be initiated to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: This test does not determine if kernicterus will occur in the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe complication of jaundice, which may result from hemolytic disease of the newborn if untreated. B: The indirect Coombs test does not detect Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. It specifically looks for Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. D: The test does not determine the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood. It focuses on detecting antibodies in
Question 7 of 9
During an assessment of a newborn following a vacuum-assisted delivery, which of the following findings should the healthcare provider be informed about?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor sucking. This finding is concerning as it may indicate potential issues with feeding and nutrition in the newborn, which can lead to complications. Poor sucking can be a sign of various underlying problems that require prompt intervention. Blue discoloration of the hands and feet (choice B) is likely due to peripheral cyanosis, which is common in newborns and often resolves on its own. Soft, edematous area on the scalp (choice C) is a common finding in newborns after vacuum-assisted delivery and typically resolves without intervention. Facial edema (choice D) is also a common finding in newborns after delivery and typically resolves on its own.
Question 8 of 9
A client is 1 hour postpartum and the nurse observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Lochia rubra and small clots are expected postpartum. 2. The firm, midline fundus indicates normal involution. 3. No signs of excessive bleeding or fundus displacement. 4. Documenting and monitoring is appropriate for normal postpartum assessment. Summary: A: Not necessary as no complications present. B: Unnecessary and could cause discomfort. C: Bladder emptying may help fundal position but not urgent. D: Correct option for normal postpartum assessment and monitoring.
Question 9 of 9
After an amniotomy, what is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the fetal heart rate pattern. After an amniotomy (breaking of the water), the priority is to monitor the fetal well-being to ensure the baby is tolerating the procedure well. Assessing the fetal heart rate pattern helps the nurse determine if the baby is experiencing any distress or changes in oxygenation. This immediate assessment is crucial in identifying any potential complications and taking prompt action. Observing the color and consistency of fluid (A) is important but not as immediate as assessing the fetal heart rate. Assessing the client's temperature (C) and evaluating for chills and increased uterine tenderness (D) are important but do not address the immediate concern of fetal well-being post-amniotomy.