ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Course Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse obtained a client's pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse documents this finding as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pulse rate assessment involves measuring the heart rate, typically at the radial artery, and noting whether it exceeds the normal range of 60-100 beats per minute in adults. When the pulse rate is above normal, it indicates an accelerated heart rate, which is medically termed tachycardia (D), defined as a heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute at rest. Tachypnea (A) refers to rapid breathing, not heart rate, and is unrelated to pulse findings. Hyperpyrexia (B) denotes an extremely high fever (typically above 41.5°C), which could cause a rapid pulse but is a temperature-related term, not a direct pulse descriptor. Arrhythmia (C) indicates an irregular heart rhythm, which may or may not involve an elevated rate; however, the question specifies only an above-normal rate without mentioning irregularity. Thus, tachycardia is the precise term for documenting a pulse rate above normal, making D the correct answer. This distinction is critical in nursing to ensure accurate communication of clinical findings.
Question 2 of 9
The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the client's antibody for a particular cellular response, Which of the following WBC component is responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In chronic tissue injury, monocytes (D) are the key white blood cells (WBCs) for phagocytosis. They transform into macrophages, which persist in tissues, engulfing debris and pathogens over time. Neutrophils (A) dominate acute inflammation, arriving early but dying off quickly. Basophils (B) release histamine in allergic responses, not phagocytosis. Eosinophils (C) target parasites and allergies, not chronic injury cleanup. Chronic conditions require sustained immune action, and monocytes/macrophages excel here, unlike the short-lived neutrophils of acute phases. This cellular adaptation to prolonged injury makes D the correct choice.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client at home who has had a tracheostomy tube for several months. The nurse monitors the client for complications associated with the long-term tracheostomy and suspects tracheoesophageal fistula if which observation is noted for the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Long-term tracheostomy complication tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) causes abdominal distention (A) from air entering the stomach. Drainage (B), secretions (C), or obstruction (D) are unrelated. A is correct. Rationale: TEF allows air leakage, inflating the abdomen, a key sign per chronic tracheostomy care.
Question 4 of 9
Mr. Gary's palliative team manages his pain and emotional needs. This is an example of?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Managing pain and emotions by a team is palliative care team (A) symptom relief, per definition. Interdisciplinary (B) broader, primary (C) initial, insurance (D) funding not relief-specific. A fits palliative focus, making it correct.
Question 5 of 9
Evidence-based care emphasizes decision making based on the best available evidence and:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Evidence-based care revolutionizes nursing by grounding decisions in the best available evidence, paired with the use of outcome studies to guide practice. This approach integrates research findings such as clinical trials or systematic reviews with patient outcomes, ensuring interventions are effective and measurable, not just theoretical. Specialty knowledge, while useful, is narrower and expert-driven, lacking the broad research base of evidence-based practice. The traditional medical model relies on established routines, often without current validation, while economic concerns prioritize cost over efficacy, neither aligning with this method's focus. Outcome studies provide concrete data, like reduced recovery times or lower infection rates, allowing nurses to adapt care dynamically. This shift enhances quality, safety, and patient-centeredness, moving nursing beyond intuition or tradition to a scientifically robust framework that improves health delivery across diverse settings.
Question 6 of 9
The home health nurse is visiting a client with a halo fixator. Which activity can the client safely perform?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Taking a walk around the block is safe with a halo fixator, promoting mobility without risking cervical stability, as the device immobilizes the neck post-injury driving or bending (e.g., cooking, movie seating) strains it. Nurses encourage this activity, teaching balance and caution, ensuring recovery while preventing fixator displacement or injury.
Question 7 of 9
The physician ordered, Maalox, 2 hours p.c, what does p.c means?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: p.c.' means after meals (C), from Latin 'post cibum,' per pharmacology. As desired (A) is 'ad lib,' before meals (B) 'a.c.,' bedtime (D) 'h.s.' C fits Maalox's post-meal use, making it correct.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statement best describe false imprisonment in nursing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: False imprisonment is unlawful restraint (B), per law e.g., locking a patient in. Not mobility (A), technique (C), right (D) confinement-based. B best defines its illegal restriction, like limiting Mr. Gary's freedom, making it correct.
Question 9 of 9
Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what level of anxiety does this features belongs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lorraine's disorganized, unintelligible speech indicates panic-level anxiety (D). Mild (A) enhances alertness; moderate (B) narrows focus but allows communication; severe (C) impairs function but speech remains coherent. Panic, the highest level, causes extreme disorganization, as seen here, with loss of rational thought and communication, per anxiety scales (e.g., Peplau). Her ER presentation aligns with panic's chaos, making D correct.