A nurse is reviewing complete blood count (CBC) data for a 76-year-old client. Which decreased value causes concern because it is not age related?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet (thrombocyte) count. Platelet count typically remains relatively stable with age, so a decreased value in a 76-year-old client would be concerning. Hemoglobin (Hgb) level can decrease with age due to factors like nutritional deficiencies. Red blood cell (RBC) count tends to decrease with age as well. White blood cell (WBC) response can vary with age and immune system activity. Therefore, the decreased platelet count is the most concerning as it is not typically age-related, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: No neurological symptoms in folic acid. Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiencies both can lead to megaloblastic anemia and similar hematological symptoms. However, vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause neurological symptoms due to its role in nerve function, which folic acid deficiency does not. Glossitis (choice A) can be a symptom of both deficiencies. Muscle wasting (choice C) is not a common symptom of either deficiency. Dizziness (choice D) is a nonspecific symptom and can occur with various vitamin deficiencies, not specific to vitamin B12 or folic acid.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Angular stomatitis/cheilosis is not a symptom specific to vitamin B12 deficiency. This condition is more commonly associated with deficiencies in iron, riboflavin, and niacin. Vitamin B12 deficiency typically presents with symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, pale skin, and neurological issues. Therefore, options A and C are incorrect as angular stomatitis/cheilosis is not sometimes or always a symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency. Option D is also incorrect as this condition can occur in individuals of all ages, not just children.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 1,4. Sildenafil inhibits phosphodiesterase type 5, leading to increased cAMP levels. Dipyridamole also inhibits phosphodiesterase, increasing cAMP. Ticlopidine and clopidogrel do not affect cAMP levels. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they include drugs that do not inhibit phosphodiesterase to increase cAMP.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Absolute lymphocytosis with hepatomegaly or splenomegaly indicates an intermediate risk in Rai Staging System, which corresponds to Stage II. Hepatomegaly or splenomegaly alone would be Stage I, while lymphadenopathy alone would be Stage 0. Stage III in CLL prognosis involves anemia and/or thrombocytopenia along with lymphocytosis. Therefore, the correct answer is Stage II. Other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the specific combination of symptoms described in the question.