ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.
Question 2 of 5
A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients who have seizures are at risk for injury and aspiration. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the family to position the client on their side during a seizure to maintain a clear airway. Placing a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended, as it can lead to oral injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client's head (Choice B) can obstruct the airway and increase the risk of aspiration. Administering diazepam orally (Choice C) is not typically done by family members during a seizure; this is usually prescribed by healthcare providers for specific situations.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig's sign.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau's sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.