ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for performing Leopold maneuvers is to first palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part (A), then determine the location of the fetal back (B), and finally palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet (C). Choosing option D (All of the Above) is correct because it encompasses all the necessary steps in the correct order to perform Leopold maneuvers effectively. Palpating the fundus helps identify the presenting part, determining the location of the fetal back provides information on the fetal lie, and palpating for the presenting part at the inlet helps confirm the position of the fetus. The other choices are incorrect because they do not provide the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers accurately.
Question 2 of 9
A client in a prenatal clinic is receiving education from a nurse and mentions, 'I don't like milk.' Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dark green leafy vegetables. Dark green leafy vegetables like kale, spinach, and broccoli are excellent sources of calcium. They provide a good alternative to dairy for those who don't like milk. These vegetables are rich in calcium, which is essential for bone health, especially during pregnancy. They also offer other nutrients like vitamin K and magnesium that support calcium absorption. Summary: B: Deep red or orange vegetables - While these vegetables are nutritious, they are not significant sources of calcium. C: White bread and rice - These foods do not provide a significant amount of calcium. D: Meat, poultry, and fish - While these foods are rich in protein and other nutrients, they are not primary sources of calcium.
Question 3 of 9
A full-term newborn is being assessed by a nurse 15 minutes after birth. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Respiratory rate 18/min) Rationale: A normal respiratory rate for a newborn is 30-60 breaths/min. A rate of 18/min is below the normal range, indicating potential respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Summary of other choices: A: Heart rate 168/min - Normal range for a newborn is 120-160/min. C: Tremors - Common in newborns due to immature nervous system, usually self-resolving. D: Fine crackles - May be present due to residual amniotic fluid and typically resolve without intervention.
Question 4 of 9
A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This statement is the correct teaching point because for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test during pregnancy, a blood glucose level of 130-140 mg/dL is considered elevated and may indicate gestational diabetes. The other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because the glucose solution is typically consumed one hour before the test, not prior to the test itself. B is incorrect as limiting carbohydrate intake is not necessary for this test. D is also incorrect because fasting for 8 hours is not required for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.
Question 5 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an axillary temperature of 37.7°C (99.9°F) in a newborn is above the normal range and could indicate a fever, which is a significant concern in newborns due to their immature immune systems. Fever in newborns can be a sign of serious infections that require immediate medical attention. A: Erythema toxicum is a common rash in newborns and typically resolves on its own without medical intervention. B: Failure to pass meconium stool by 48 hours may be a concern but not as urgent as a fever. C: Pink-tinged urine in the first few days of life is likely due to uric acid crystals and is considered normal in newborns.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. This is because shortness of breath can indicate a potentially serious side effect like a blood clot, which is a rare but serious complication associated with oral contraceptives. Reduced menstrual flow (A) is a common side effect and not typically a cause for concern. Breast tenderness (B) is a common but generally benign side effect of oral contraceptives. Increased appetite (D) is also a common side effect but not typically a sign of a serious complication. Therefore, the healthcare provider should emphasize the importance of reporting shortness of breath promptly.
Question 7 of 9
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You will be offered orange juice to drink during the test." This statement is correct because providing orange juice to the client during the nonstress test can stimulate fetal movement, making it easier to monitor the baby's heart rate. This can help in obtaining a more accurate assessment of the baby's well-being. Incorrect options: A: IV fluid administration is not typically required for a nonstress test, so this statement is incorrect. B: The procedure can actually take longer than 10 to 15 minutes, depending on various factors, so this statement is inaccurate. D: Informed consent is usually obtained once, not before each test, so this statement is not necessary for the client to know in this context.
Question 8 of 9
When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume three to four servings of dairy each day. During the third trimester of pregnancy, calcium needs increase to support the baby's bone development. Dairy products are a rich source of calcium. Adolescents are still growing themselves, so adequate calcium intake is crucial for both the mother and baby. B: Increasing caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories is not specific to the third trimester and may lead to excessive weight gain, which can be harmful. C: Limiting sodium intake to less than 1 gram is not necessary during pregnancy, and some sodium is required for maintaining fluid balance. D: Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day is important, but it is not specific to the third trimester and may vary based on individual needs.
Question 9 of 9
A newborn was delivered vaginally and experienced a tight nuchal cord. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Petechiae over the head. This is because tight nuchal cord can cause pressure on the baby's head during delivery, leading to tiny red or purple spots called petechiae due to capillary rupture. Bruising over the buttocks (A) is more common in breech deliveries, hard nodules on the roof of the mouth (B) could indicate Epstein pearls which are benign and common in newborns, and bilateral periauricular papillomas (D) are not related to nuchal cord compression.