A nurse is planning care for a client who is having a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) with stent placement. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate in the post-procedure plan of care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for bleeding. After PTCA with stent placement, the nurse should anticipate monitoring the client for signs of bleeding at the catheter insertion site. This is crucial as bleeding is a common complication post-procedure. The nurse should assess the insertion site regularly for any signs of bleeding, such as swelling, hematoma, or active bleeding. Prompt identification and management of bleeding can prevent further complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Administer beta blockers - Beta blockers are not typically administered immediately post-PTCA with stent placement. They may be part of the long-term management for cardiac conditions but are not a priority post-procedure. C: Increase fluid intake - While maintaining adequate hydration is important for overall health, increasing fluid intake is not a specific post-procedure intervention for PTCA with stent placement. D: Restrict all movement - Restricting all movement post-PTCA with stent placement is not necessary. Encouraging

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (Gds) because monitoring gastrointestinal (GI) adverse effects is essential when a patient is taking NSAIDs due to the increased risk of ulcers, bleeding, and perforation. B: CNS adverse effects are potential side effects of NSAIDs, so monitoring for symptoms like headache, dizziness, and confusion is necessary. C: Cardiac adverse effects such as increased risk of heart attack and stroke should be monitored in patients taking NSAIDs. D: Renal adverse effects like decreased kidney function and fluid retention are common with NSAIDs and warrant monitoring. In summary, choice A (Gds) does not apply because GI adverse effects are a crucial consideration when monitoring patients on NSAIDs, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid because it belongs to the class of medications that mimic the actions of corticosteroid hormones produced by the adrenal glands. Corticosteroids have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties, making them effective for treating various conditions like asthma, arthritis, and autoimmune diseases. Methotrexate, Hydroxychloroquine, and Leflunomide are not corticosteroids; they belong to different classes of medications used for managing conditions like rheumatoid arthritis but work through different mechanisms of action.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cyclophosphamide. Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a side effect, which is less likely to occur if taken in the morning due to the diurnal variation in bladder toxicity. Methotrexate, Leflunomide, and Adalimumab are not associated with hemorrhagic cystitis and do not require specific timing for administration to prevent this side effect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Antihistamines do not help poison ivy. Poison ivy rash is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction, not a histamine-mediated reaction. Therefore, antihistamines will not provide relief. The most appropriate response is to educate the client on the ineffectiveness of antihistamines for poison ivy. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: There are different antihistamines to try. This is incorrect because antihistamines are not effective for poison ivy rash. C: You should be seen in the clinic right away. Immediate clinic visit is not necessary unless there are severe symptoms or complications. D: You will need to take some IV steroids. IV steroids are not the first-line treatment for poison ivy rash. Topical steroids are usually sufficient.