ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.
Question 2 of 5
A client is prescribed simvastatin. Which instruction should the nurse provide during teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.' Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of toxicity when taken with simvastatin. Instructing the client to avoid grapefruit juice helps prevent this interaction. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration for simvastatin is usually in the evening. Choice C is unrelated to simvastatin therapy. Choice D is not necessary for monitoring while taking simvastatin.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse has administered medications to a group of clients. For which of the following client situations should the nurse complete an incident report?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because administering insulin lispro to an NPO client can lead to hypoglycemia due to the lack of food to balance the medication. This situation poses a serious risk to the client's safety and should be documented in an incident report. Choice A is not as critical as insulin administration for an NPO client. Choice C is also serious but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Choice D, administering anticoagulants without checking the INR, is important but does not require an incident report unless adverse effects occur, as it may not immediately endanger the client's life.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate elixir. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because rinsing the mouth is essential to prevent staining and irritation caused by ferrous sulfate elixir. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking ferrous sulfate elixir before meals (Choice A) is not necessary. Mixing it with water (Choice B) is not recommended as it may alter the medication's effectiveness. Taking the medication once a week (Choice C) is incorrect as ferrous sulfate is usually prescribed daily or as directed by a healthcare provider.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare professional is assisting with the admission of a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect the provider to prescribe for the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage anxiety and prevent seizures during alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Choice A) is an antipsychotic medication and is not typically used for alcohol withdrawal. Disulfiram (Choice B) is used in the treatment of alcohol use disorder but is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Phenobarbital (Choice D) may be used for alcohol withdrawal seizures but is not the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.