A nurse is monitoring a client who had a myocardial infarction. For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor in the first 24 hr?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ventricular dysrhythmias. After a myocardial infarction, the heart is at risk for arrhythmias due to damaged tissue and electrical instability. Monitoring for dysrhythmias is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Cardiogenic shock (B) typically occurs later, not within the first 24 hours. Pulmonary edema (C) is a potential complication but usually presents a bit later. Pericarditis (D) is also a potential complication but typically occurs days to weeks after a myocardial infarction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antihypertensive medication for blood pressure. Step-by-step rationale: 1. An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a serious condition that can lead to rupture if not managed properly. 2. The client's elevated blood pressure of 160/98 mm Hg can increase the risk of rupture. 3. Administering antihypertensive medication can help lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of rupture. 4. By managing the blood pressure, the nurse is helping to stabilize the client before surgery. Summary of other choices: B: Increasing IV fluids may not directly address the elevated blood pressure and can potentially worsen the situation. C: Monitoring without intervention may lead to a missed opportunity to prevent a potential rupture. D: Administering oxygen is not the priority action in this scenario; addressing the elevated blood pressure is crucial.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To manage acute gout attacks. NSAIDs are commonly used in managing gout due to their anti-inflammatory properties, helping to reduce pain and swelling during acute attacks. NSAIDs do not treat osteoporosis (A), increase platelet production (C), or stimulate appetite (D). It is important to choose NSAIDs carefully based on individual factors such as medical history and potential side effects.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hair loss. Leflunomide is known to cause hair loss as a side effect due to its impact on the hair follicles. This is a common adverse reaction and can occur in some individuals taking leflunomide. Pulmonary fibrosis (B), retinal damage (C), and hepatotoxicity (D) are not typically associated with leflunomide use. Pulmonary fibrosis is more commonly linked to certain medications like methotrexate, while retinal damage and hepatotoxicity are not common side effects of leflunomide.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Methotrexate. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and systemic luplupus erythematosus. It works by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system. Methotrexate is considered a first-line treatment for these conditions due to its efficacy and safety profile. Explanation of other choices: B: Hydroxychloroquine is primarily used to treat malaria and certain autoimmune conditions like lupus, but it is not typically the first choice for rheumatoid arthritis. C: Leflunomide is another DMARD used for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is not commonly used for systemic lupus erythematosus. D: Adalimumab is a biologic DMARD used for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is not typically used for systemic lupus erythematosus.