ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Study Guide Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is immunizing children against measles. This is an example of what level of preventive care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Immunizing children against measles is primary prevention, stopping disease before it occurs by boosting immunity here, via vaccines that prevent measles' highly contagious spread. This proactive step, common in clinics or schools, promotes health and averts outbreaks, aligning with nursing's focus on keeping populations well. Secondary prevention screens for early detection, like testing for measles exposure, while tertiary prevention rehabilitates after illness, such as managing measles complications. 'Chronic' isn't a prevention level. Measles shots exemplify primary care's impact decades of vaccination have slashed cases showing nursing's role in preempting illness, protecting kids before exposure, and building community health resilience through simple, effective interventions.
Question 2 of 5
Click to highlight the findings that are recognized as needing only standard precautions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Standard precautions apply to all patients, but additional precautions (e.g., contact, droplet) depend on infection risk. Among the findings pain 9/10, watery diarrhea, jaundice, and WBC 1,000 μL (immunosuppression) WBC count of 1,000 μL (D) requires only standard precautions unless an active infection is confirmed. Pain (A) and jaundice (C) are symptoms, not contagious risks. Diarrhea (B) suggests possible infection (e.g., C. difficile), warranting contact precautions. The client's HIV status heightens infection susceptibility, but low WBC alone doesn't dictate beyond standard precautions. D is correct. Rationale: Standard precautions (hand hygiene, gloves) suffice for immunosuppression without transmissible disease; diarrhea triggers extra measures due to potential pathogen spread, per CDC guidelines, making D the least likely to escalate precautions in isolation.
Question 3 of 5
The low-exhaled volume (low-pressure) alarm sounds on a ventilator. The nurse rushes to the client's room and checks the client to determine the cause of the alarm but is unable to do so. Which would be the next immediate nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A low-pressure alarm suggests a leak or disconnection; manual ventilation with a resuscitation bag (B) ensures immediate oxygenation while troubleshooting continues. Calling teams (A, C, D) delays airway support. B is correct. Rationale: Manual bagging maintains ventilation, a life-saving priority per ACLS and ventilator protocols, addressing potential hypoxia swiftly.
Question 4 of 5
What action should the nurse take when caring for a client who has a possible skull fracture as a result of trauma?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For a possible skull fracture, monitoring for brain injury signs (A) is the priority, detecting neurological deterioration like altered consciousness or pupil changes. Checking hemorrhage (B) is secondary. Elevating the foot (C) risks increasing ICP. Observing decreased ICP (D) is incorrect; increased ICP is the concern. A is correct. Rationale: Brain injury monitoring identifies life-threatening complications like hematoma, guiding timely intervention, per trauma care protocols, over less immediate or contraindicated actions.
Question 5 of 5
A client is admitted with head trauma after a fall. The client is being prepared for a supratentorial craniotomy with burr holes, and an intravenous infusion of mannitol is instituted. The nurse concludes that this medication primarily is given to do what?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mannitol (D) is an osmotic diuretic given pre-craniotomy to decrease brain fluid, reducing ICP. It doesn't primarily lower BP (A), prevent hypoglycemia (B), or boost cardiac output (C). D is correct. Rationale: Mannitol draws fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream, lowering ICP, a key pre-surgical intervention in head trauma, per neurosurgical standards, targeting cerebral edema directly.