Questions 9

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is delegating the collection of a sputum specimen to an assistive personnel (AP). At which of the following times should the nurse instruct the AP to collect the specimen?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'As soon as the client awakens in the morning.' Sputum specimens should be collected early in the morning to obtain a concentrated sample. This timing ensures that the specimen is less diluted, providing a more accurate analysis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for collecting a sputum specimen, which is in the morning.

Question 2 of 5

A client who is to undergo a colonoscopy is being taught by a nurse about the procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. During a colonoscopy, clients are typically sedated, so they do not feel any pain during the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Clients are usually required to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before a colonoscopy, and there are specific dietary restrictions that need to be followed before the procedure to ensure a successful examination.

Question 3 of 5

What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing this condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness, confusion, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness. However, the classic and most common early sign is shakiness or tremors. When a patient is experiencing hypoglycemia, a healthcare provider should respond promptly by administering glucose to raise the blood sugar levels. Choice A is correct as it directly addresses one of the primary signs of hypoglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while confusion, irritability, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness can also be signs of hypoglycemia, shakiness or tremors are the classic and most common early symptoms that healthcare providers should be particularly vigilant for.

Question 4 of 5

A client has a history of oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema. Current lab values are: BUN - 25, K+ - 4.0 mEq/L. Which nutrient should be restricted in the client's diet?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In clients with oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema, protein should be restricted in the diet to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Excessive protein intake can lead to increased BUN levels, which can further stress the kidneys. Restricting protein can help prevent further kidney damage. Fats, carbohydrates, and magnesium do not directly impact kidney function in the same way as protein does, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.

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