ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irrigating the bladder using sterile technique is crucial in the care of a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). This intervention helps prevent infection and maintains patency of the urinary catheter, promoting healing. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) may be necessary if there is an infection present, but it is not a routine intervention following TURP. Avoiding bladder irrigation (Choice C) is not recommended as it can lead to clot retention and other complications. Inserting a urinary catheter (Choice D) is usually already done during the TURP procedure and is not a postoperative intervention.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This is important to promote natural healing and prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily can actually delay healing and increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as the cord stump typically falls off within 1 to 3 weeks, not in 5 days. Choice C is incorrect because a cord stump turning black is a normal part of the healing process and does not necessarily indicate a problem requiring immediate provider contact.
Question 3 of 9
A client post-lumbar puncture should be in which position?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client post-lumbar puncture is the supine position. Placing the client in a supine position helps prevent spinal headaches by allowing the puncture site to seal effectively and reducing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. High Fowler's position, prone position, and sitting position are not recommended after a lumbar puncture as they may increase the risk of complications like spinal headaches.
Question 4 of 9
What are the signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia and how should it be managed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, making choice A correct. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, and calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart by antagonizing the effects of potassium. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms and interventions that are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Confusion and bradycardia are not common in hyperkalemia, and insulin and glucose are used in hyperkalemia only under specific circumstances. Fatigue and irregular heart rate are vague symptoms, and diuretics are not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Nausea and vomiting are nonspecific symptoms and sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the management of hyperkalemia.
Question 5 of 9
A client with hypokalemia is commonly expected to present with which of the following findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle weakness. Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness. This occurs because potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and a deficiency can impair muscle strength. Nausea (choice B) is not a typical finding associated with hypokalemia. Tingling sensation (choice C) is more commonly linked to issues like nerve damage or poor blood circulation, rather than hypokalemia. Increased thirst (choice D) is not a direct symptom of hypokalemia; it is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes or dehydration.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with a pressure ulcer who has a low albumin level?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Consulting with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a pressure ulcer and low albumin level. This intervention can help address the client's poor nutritional status, support wound healing, and specifically target the low albumin level. Increasing protein intake alone (Choice A) may not be sufficient without proper guidance. Providing nutritional supplements (Choice C) can be beneficial but consulting with a dietitian for a personalized plan is more effective in this case. Increasing IV fluid intake (Choice D) primarily targets hydration and may not directly address the underlying issue of low albumin and poor nutritional status.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irrigating the bladder using sterile technique is crucial in the care of a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). This intervention helps prevent infection and maintains patency of the urinary catheter, promoting healing. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) may be necessary if there is an infection present, but it is not a routine intervention following TURP. Avoiding bladder irrigation (Choice C) is not recommended as it can lead to clot retention and other complications. Inserting a urinary catheter (Choice D) is usually already done during the TURP procedure and is not a postoperative intervention.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who was admitted for acute kidney injury. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Creatinine is the correct answer. In acute kidney injury, creatinine levels are expected to be elevated due to impaired renal function. Magnesium, hemoglobin, and white blood cell count are not typically elevated in acute kidney injury. Magnesium levels may be affected in kidney disease, but elevation is not a common finding in acute kidney injury.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse assisting with a childbirth class is discussing nonpharmacological strategies used during labor. Which of the following statements by a client indicates an understanding of cutaneous stimulation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Apply counter-pressure for back pain.' Counter-pressure involves applying pressure to the lower back to alleviate pain during labor. This technique is a form of cutaneous stimulation, which can help with pain relief. Choice B, deep breathing exercises, is a form of relaxation technique and does not directly involve cutaneous stimulation. Choice C, visualizing the baby's head, is a mental imagery technique and does not involve physical stimulation of the skin. Choice D, massage therapy, is a tactile stimulation technique but is not specifically focused on back pain relief through counter-pressure.