A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Zolpidem is known to cause dizziness, especially in older adults. This adverse effect can increase the risk of falls and injuries in the elderly population. Monitoring for dizziness is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choice A, Ecchymosis, is the development of bruising and is not a common adverse effect of zolpidem. Choices B and C, Decreased urine output and Increased blood pressure, are not typically associated with zolpidem use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen medication used primarily in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer. It works by blocking the effects of estrogen in the breast tissue, thereby acting as an antiestrogenic agent. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choice B, antimicrobial, is incorrect as tamoxifen does not possess antimicrobial properties and is not used to treat infections. Choice C, androgenic, is incorrect as tamoxifen has antiestrogenic effects, not androgenic effects. Choice D, anti-inflammatory, is incorrect as tamoxifen's main therapeutic action is antiestrogenic rather than anti-inflammatory.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because respiratory depression is a significant risk when administering morphine, and it can occur within 7 minutes after administration. This information is crucial for the nurse to recognize and respond promptly. Choice B is incorrect because the peak effect of morphine via IV bolus is typically reached within a few minutes, not specifically 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect because withholding morphine based solely on a respiratory rate less than 16/min may not be appropriate without considering other factors such as pain level, oxygen saturation, and overall respiratory status. Choice D is incorrect because administering morphine over 2 minutes may not prevent respiratory depression if it occurs rapidly after administration. Nurses should be vigilant for signs of respiratory depression regardless of the administration duration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To find the dose per administration, first convert the toddler's weight to kg: 28.6 lb · 2.2 = 13 kg. Then calculate the total daily dose: 20 mg/kg 13 kg = 260 mg/day. Since it is divided into two doses, each dose is 130 mg. The concentration of the oral suspension is 250 mg/5 mL = 50 mg/mL. Therefore, to find the volume needed per dose, divide the dose by the concentration: 130 mg · 50 mg/mL = 2.6 mL per dose. Hence, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the dosage of chlorothiazide needed per dose based on the toddler's weight and the concentration of the oral suspension.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intestinal obstruction. Metoclopramide is contraindicated in clients with intestinal obstruction due to its prokinetic effects, which could exacerbate the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoclopramide is not contraindicated in hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, or low blood pressure. Hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, and low blood pressure are not specific contraindications for metoclopramide use, and this medication is commonly prescribed for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease and diabetic gastroparesis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils in patients with neutropenia. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in fighting off infections. Therefore, an increase in neutrophil count would indicate a therapeutic effect of filgrastim. The other options, such as erythrocyte count (red blood cells), lymphocyte count, and thrombocyte count (platelets), are not directly affected by filgrastim and would not indicate a therapeutic effect of this medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Heparin is best absorbed and less likely to cause hematomas when administered into subcutaneous tissue, specifically the abdomen, which is a common site for subcutaneous injections. Injecting heparin into a muscle (Choice B) is incorrect as it should be administered subcutaneously. Massaging the site after administering the medication (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can cause tissue damage or bruising. Using a 22-gauge needle (Choice D) is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of heparin; a smaller needle size such as 25-26 gauge is preferred for subcutaneous administration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cromolyn sodium is a preventive medication and should not be used as a rescue inhaler when wheezing starts. This indicates a need for further teaching as the parent should understand that cromolyn sodium is not meant for immediate relief of symptoms. Choice B is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps reduce the risk of oral thrush, a common side effect. Choice C is correct as exhaling completely before using the inhaler helps ensure proper inhalation of the medication. Choice D is correct as a spacer can be used if the child has difficulty coordinating breathing with the inhaler, improving medication delivery.