Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This intervention can help stimulate voiding after catheter removal by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and increasing sensory input to the bladder. Assessing for bladder distention after 6 hours (Choice A) is important but not the initial intervention for difficulty voiding. Encouraging the client to use a bedpan in the supine position (Choice B) may not be effective in promoting voiding. Restricting the client's intake of oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate as hydration is important for urinary function.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, it is indicative of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. The next step for the nurse should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a cold compress may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Monitoring for infection is important, but in this case, the presence of redness and warmth suggests phlebitis, not infection. Increasing the IV flow rate can exacerbate the inflammation and should be avoided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When a charge nurse observes repeated failure in a staff member's performance, it is essential to address the issue directly. Choice D is the correct answer as it involves discussing the behavior with the assistive personnel (AP) while reinforcing expectations. This approach helps in clarifying the expected standards, setting accountability, and providing an opportunity for improvement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Ignoring the behavior (Choice A) does not address the problem and can lead to continued substandard care. Reassigning the AP (Choice B) may not solve the issue and can potentially transfer the problem to another area. Reporting the behavior to the manager (Choice C) without directly addressing it with the AP first may not promote a constructive approach to resolving the issue.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.