A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The client reports fullness in the throat. What should the nurse assess for?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. Fullness in the throat post-thyroidectomy can indicate postoperative bleeding, a critical complication that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect because it does not typically present with fullness in the throat. Choice C, Hypoxia, is not directly related to the symptom described and is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, Hypothyroidism, is also incorrect as it is a long-term condition and unlikely to manifest suddenly 4 hours postoperatively with throat fullness.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client who sprained his ankle 12 hours ago. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse question?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes. Heat should not be applied in the first 48 hours after an acute injury, as it can increase swelling. Cold therapy is more appropriate initially. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions in the care of a client with a sprained ankle. Elevating the affected extremity helps reduce swelling, wrapping it with a compression dressing provides support, and assessing sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours is important to monitor for complications.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with chronic renal failure is to restrict protein intake to the RDA. This is important because limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) may further burden the kidneys, increasing the risk of fluid overload. Increasing dietary potassium (choice C) is not recommended in chronic renal failure as impaired kidneys have difficulty regulating potassium levels. Encouraging foods high in sodium (choice D) is also not appropriate as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are detrimental in renal failure.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Withholding heparin IV infusion is the priority if there is a risk of complications such as bleeding, which must be evaluated before continuing treatment.

Question 8 of 9

A charge nurse is teaching a new nurse how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which agent should the charge nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Chlorine bleach is the most appropriate agent for disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood. It is effective in killing a wide range of pathogens, including viruses. Hydrogen peroxide (Choice A) is not as effective as chlorine bleach for bloodborne pathogen disinfection. Chlorhexidine (Choice B) and isopropyl alcohol (Choice C) are more commonly used for skin antisepsis rather than surface disinfection, making them less suitable options in this scenario.

Question 9 of 9

A healthcare professional is teaching a client about reducing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which factor increases the risk of UTI?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Using perfumed toilet paper can irritate the urinary tract and increase the risk of UTI, so it should be avoided. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch (Choice A) is a preventive measure as cotton allows for better air circulation and reduces moisture, lowering the risk of UTIs. Wiping from front to back (Choice B) helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the anal region to the urinary tract. Urinating after intercourse (Choice D) can help flush out bacteria introduced during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.

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