ATI LPN
ATI Pn Exit Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure, works by slowing down the heart rate and increasing the force of heart contractions. Excessive levels of digoxin can lead to toxicity, causing bradycardia (slow heart rate), among other symptoms. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite is not a recognized sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are more common.
Question 2 of 5
What is the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient is experiencing a seizure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a seizure, the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider is to protect the patient's head. This helps prevent injury, especially considering the involuntary movements and potential thrashing associated with seizures. Restraint should be avoided as it can lead to further injury or distress for the patient. Inserting an airway is not recommended during an active seizure as the patient's airway may not be obstructed, and it could pose a risk of injury. Giving the patient water during a seizure is also not advisable as there is a risk of aspiration. Therefore, the priority is to ensure the patient's safety by protecting their head.
Question 3 of 5
What are early indicators of dehydration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.
Question 4 of 5
How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.
Question 5 of 5
What are the key considerations for managing a patient with COPD?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The key considerations for managing a patient with COPD include oxygen therapy, which is essential to maintain adequate oxygen saturation levels. While bronchodilators are commonly used to manage COPD symptoms, they are not the primary consideration. Smoking cessation is crucial in preventing further damage but is not a direct management consideration. Pulmonary rehabilitation is beneficial for improving exercise capacity and quality of life but is not as crucial as ensuring adequate oxygen therapy.