ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.
Question 2 of 9
A client with hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Baked chicken breast. It is low in sodium and a healthy option for clients with hypertension. Canned tomato soup and processed cheese are typically high in sodium, which is not recommended for individuals with hypertension. Pickled vegetables are also high in sodium and should be avoided in a hypertension-friendly diet.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin is to inject the medication in the abdomen subcutaneously. This route ensures proper absorption of the medication. Aspiration is not necessary before injecting enoxaparin as it is a subcutaneous injection, not an intramuscular injection. Massaging the site after injecting should be avoided to prevent bruising. Enoxaparin injections are typically given at a 45 to 90-degree angle, not necessarily at a strict 90-degree angle.
Question 4 of 9
A provider has written a do not resuscitate (DNR) order for a client who is comatose and does not have advance directives. A member of the client's family says, 'I wonder when the doctor will tell us what's going on.' Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to ask the family what the provider has discussed with them. This allows the nurse to clarify any misunderstandings and ensures that the family is fully informed before providing further information. Option A is not the best choice because it assumes the need for more information without first understanding what has already been communicated. Option B is premature as the family may not be ready for grief counseling at this stage. Option C, although a good general practice, is not the most appropriate immediate action in this situation where clarifying existing information is crucial.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse in an urgent-care clinic is collecting admission history from a client who is 16 weeks gestation and has bacterial vaginosis. The nurse should recognize that which of the following clinical findings are associated with this infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bacterial vaginosis often presents with a profuse, milky white discharge and a characteristic fishy odor, without significant inflammation, hematuria, or fever. Choice A, frequency, and dysuria are more indicative of a urinary tract infection. Choice C, hematuria, is associated with conditions like urinary tract infections or kidney problems. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a typical symptom of bacterial vaginosis.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness. The nurse should recommend that the protocol include which of the following as a clinical manifestation of smallpox?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Rash in the mouth.' Smallpox presents with a distinctive rash that typically begins in the mouth and spreads to the rest of the body, developing into pustules. This rash is a key clinical manifestation of smallpox. This infectious disease is characterized by the rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with smallpox. Bloody diarrhea, ptosis of the eyelids, and descending paralysis are not typical clinical manifestations of smallpox.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is checking laboratory results for a client. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates hypervolemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity of 1.001 is low and indicates dilute urine, which is a sign of fluid overload (hypervolemia). Choice A, serum sodium 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not indicate hypervolemia. Choice C, serum calcium 10 mg/dL, is not typically used to diagnose hypervolemia. Choice D, urine pH 6, is also not a specific indicator of hypervolemia.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking lisinopril should avoid potassium-rich foods because ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels, potentially leading to hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. Clients should notify their doctor if they develop a cough as it can indicate a potential side effect of lisinopril. Avoiding salt substitutes is important as they may contain potassium chloride, which can also raise potassium levels. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential when taking an antihypertensive medication like lisinopril.
Question 9 of 9
A client has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings indicates a need to withhold the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.