ATI LPN
Hematologic System Assessment Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing for cardiac tamponade on a client who had coronary artery bypass grafts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate blood pressure for pulsus paradoxus. This is the most appropriate action because pulsus paradoxus is a key sign of cardiac tamponade, where there is an abnormal drop in blood pressure during inspiration. This occurs due to increased pressure on the heart caused by fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac. Checking for chest pain (B) may not be specific to cardiac tamponade. Monitoring ECG for ST changes (C) is important but may not be as immediate as assessing for pulsus paradoxus. Assessing respiratory rate (D) is also important but may not be as specific to cardiac tamponade as checking for pulsus paradoxus.
Question 2 of 5
Which medication is a corticosteroid?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid because it belongs to the class of medications that mimic the actions of corticosteroid hormones produced by the adrenal glands. Corticosteroids have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties, making them effective for treating various conditions like asthma, arthritis, and autoimmune diseases. Methotrexate, Hydroxychloroquine, and Leflunomide are not corticosteroids; they belong to different classes of medications used for managing conditions like rheumatoid arthritis but work through different mechanisms of action.
Question 3 of 5
Which medication should be taken in the morning to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cyclophosphamide. Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a side effect, which is less likely to occur if taken in the morning due to the diurnal variation in bladder toxicity. Methotrexate, Leflunomide, and Adalimumab are not associated with hemorrhagic cystitis and do not require specific timing for administration to prevent this side effect.
Question 4 of 5
A client calls the clinic to report exposure to poison ivy and an itchy rash that is not helped with over-the-counter antihistamines. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Antihistamines do not help poison ivy. Poison ivy rash is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction, not a histamine-mediated reaction. Therefore, antihistamines will not provide relief. The most appropriate response is to educate the client on the ineffectiveness of antihistamines for poison ivy. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: There are different antihistamines to try. This is incorrect because antihistamines are not effective for poison ivy rash. C: You should be seen in the clinic right away. Immediate clinic visit is not necessary unless there are severe symptoms or complications. D: You will need to take some IV steroids. IV steroids are not the first-line treatment for poison ivy rash. Topical steroids are usually sufficient.
Question 5 of 5
In which of the following conditions is percent transferrin iron saturation highest?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hemachromatosis. In hemachromatosis, the body absorbs and stores too much iron, leading to high transferrin iron saturation. Rationale: 1. In hemachromatosis, the body absorbs excess iron from the diet, causing high iron levels in the blood. 2. Transferrin is a protein that transports iron in the blood. In hemachromatosis, the high iron levels saturate the transferrin, leading to high percent transferrin iron saturation. 3. Anemia of chronic disease (A) is characterized by low iron levels and low transferrin iron saturation. 4. Iron deficiency (B) results in low iron levels and low transferrin iron saturation. 5. Pernicious anemia (C) is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, not iron overload, leading to normal to low transferrin iron saturation. Summary: Hemachromatosis leads to high