ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased respiratory rate. In pneumonia, the body tries to compensate for the reduced ability to oxygenate the blood by increasing the respiratory rate. This helps to improve oxygen exchange. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia, as an increased heart rate is more common due to the stress on the body. Decreased temperature (Choice C) is not a typical finding in pneumonia, as infections usually cause a fever. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common finding in pneumonia unless there are complications such as sepsis.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for hyperkalemia due to impaired potassium excretion. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete potassium, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) refers to low blood sugar levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical concern in chronic kidney disease.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash and has a minor traumatic brain injury (TBI). What finding should the nurse recognize as a complication and report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Unequal pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or worsening brain injury, indicating a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Hypertension, vomiting, and drainage from the ear are not typically associated with minor traumatic brain injury complications; therefore, they are not the priority findings to report to the provider.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.
Question 7 of 9
A client has been prescribed metformin. What should be included in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take metformin with food. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as metformin is not typically associated with weight gain. Choice C is wrong as metformin is not an insulin but a medication that helps control blood sugar levels. Choice D is also incorrect as metformin is not known to cause hyperglycemia.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed levetiracetam. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum creatinine. Levetiracetam requires monitoring of renal function, specifically serum creatinine levels, as it is primarily eliminated by the kidneys. Monitoring liver function (Choice A) is not necessary for levetiracetam. Blood glucose levels (Choice B) are typically not affected by levetiracetam. While monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important in general patient care, it is not specifically required for clients prescribed levetiracetam.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to give the client a carbohydrate snack. When a client is experiencing hypoglycemia, the priority intervention is to raise their blood glucose levels quickly. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower the blood glucose levels and is contra-indicated in this situation. Calling for assistance (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over addressing the low blood sugar. Monitoring blood glucose (Choice D) is important but not the initial action needed to raise blood glucose levels rapidly.