A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amiodarone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Questions 56

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

Pharmacology for LPN Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amiodarone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious side effect of amiodarone, and should be reported. Dry skin is not typically associated with amiodarone use. Weight loss is a common side effect of amiodarone but not generally a cause for concern unless severe. Bradycardia is a known side effect of amiodarone and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless symptomatic.

Question 2 of 9

A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting metformin is to increase fluid intake. This is crucial to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of metformin. Adequate hydration can also help reduce the risk of kidney problems associated with metformin use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While it's generally recommended to take metformin with food to reduce stomach upset, monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia is more relevant for other antidiabetic medications, and a metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of metformin.

Question 3 of 9

Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to prevent the complication of pulmonary embolism?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is crucial in preventing the complication of pulmonary embolism in clients with deep vein thrombosis. Anticoagulants help prevent the formation of new clots and the enlargement of existing ones, thereby reducing the risk of a pulmonary embolism. Encouraging ambulation as tolerated is beneficial for preventing complications related to immobility, but it is not the primary intervention to prevent pulmonary embolism in this case. Applying cold compresses to the affected area may help with pain and swelling but does not address the prevention of pulmonary embolism. Encouraging the use of incentive spirometry is more relevant in preventing respiratory complications such as atelectasis, not specifically pulmonary embolism.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

Question 6 of 9

The healthcare professional is reinforcing teaching for a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Elevating the legs can decrease blood flow in clients with PAD, worsening symptoms. Therefore, advising the client to keep the legs elevated on pillows while resting is incorrect and can exacerbate the condition. Choice B is correct as avoiding crossing legs helps prevent circulation restriction. Choice C is correct as wearing loose-fitting shoes promotes circulation. Choice D is correct as avoiding exposure to cold temperatures helps prevent vasoconstriction, which can worsen PAD symptoms.

Question 7 of 9

A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should reinforce which dietary instruction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to keep the medication's effectiveness stable. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy greens, can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to avoid these foods to ensure the therapeutic effects of warfarin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing dairy products, limiting fiber intake, or increasing protein intake do not directly impact the effectiveness of warfarin therapy and are not necessary dietary modifications for clients on this medication.

Question 8 of 9

Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly with heparin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range is maintained to prevent clot formation and excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) assesses overall health, serum electrolytes evaluate the body's electrolyte balance, and liver function tests assess liver health, none of which directly evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy for DVT.

Question 9 of 9

A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. What instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. This symptom can indicate a potential issue with the medication that may require adjustment or discontinuation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication at bedtime or with meals is not a specific instruction for ACE inhibitors. Increasing potassium-rich foods in the diet is not directly related to ACE inhibitor therapy and may not be suitable for all patients.

Access More Questions!

ATI LPN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI LPN Premium


$150/ 90 days