ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
Question 2 of 5
While caring for a client receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation, the nurse notes contractions occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and complications. By stopping the oxytocin, the nurse can help regulate contractions and prevent harm to the fetus. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the issue by further intensifying contractions. Applying an internal fetal monitor may be necessary for closer monitoring but is not the immediate action required. Administering an analgesic is not appropriate in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevating the leg promotes venous return and reduces swelling, which is crucial for clients with DVT. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and worsen the condition. Applying cold packs can cause vasoconstriction, potentially increasing the risk of clot formation. Keeping the leg dependent can impede circulation and increase the risk of clot migration.
Question 4 of 5
A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.
Question 5 of 5
A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, decreased deep tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can lead to respiratory depression and other serious complications, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, tachypnea, and hyperreflexia are not typical findings associated with magnesium toxicity.