A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of aplastic anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Petechiae and ecchymosis. In aplastic anemia, there is a decrease in all types of blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets), leading to symptoms like easy bruising (ecchymosis) and tiny red or purple spots on the skin (petechiae) due to decreased platelet count. Pallor alone (B) is more indicative of anemia in general, not specifically aplastic anemia. Fever (C) is not a typical manifestation of aplastic anemia. Fatigue alone (D) is a common symptom of many types of anemia, but it does not specifically point to aplastic anemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because methotrexate can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased production of blood cells and increased risk of infections. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial to detect and manage any complications promptly. Choice B is incorrect as methotrexate is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C advising to avoid taking with water is irrelevant. Choice D is incorrect as methotrexate is typically administered on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase enzyme, reducing uric acid levels. 2. Probenecid increases uric acid excretion, not inhibiting xanthine oxidase. 3. Colchicine is an anti-inflammatory agent for gout, not a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. 4. Leflunomide is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug, not a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. In summary, Allopurinol (choice A) is the correct answer as it directly inhibits xanthine oxidase, while the other choices have different mechanisms of action not related to xanthine oxidase inhibition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because abruptly stopping prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the body's natural cortisol production. This can result in potentially life-threatening symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are important considerations when taking prednisone, they are not as critical as ensuring the client understands the importance of tapering off the medication gradually to prevent adrenal insufficiency.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iron deficiency anemia. Hookworm infection can lead to iron deficiency anemia by causing blood loss in the gastrointestinal tract. Hookworms feed on blood in the intestines, leading to chronic blood loss and subsequent iron deficiency. This type of anemia is characterized by low iron levels in the body, resulting in decreased production of hemoglobin and red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia (choice A) is caused by premature destruction of red blood cells, not blood loss. Megaloblastic anemia (choice C) is typically due to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency, not related to hookworm infestation. Aplastic anemia (choice D) is a condition where the bone marrow does not produce enough blood cells, not directly caused by hookworm infection.