ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is admitting a term newborn following a cesarean birth. The nurse observes that the newborn's skin is slightly yellow. This finding indicates the newborn is experiencing a complication related to which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why the correct answer is A: 1. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility can result in hemolytic disease of the newborn. 2. Hemolytic disease causes an increase in bilirubin levels, leading to jaundice. 3. Jaundice in this case is due to the breakdown of red blood cells and elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels. 4. Physiologic jaundice is a normal process in newborns and usually appears after the first 24 hours of life. 5. Absence of vitamin K would not directly cause jaundice. 6. Maternal cocaine abuse is not typically associated with neonatal jaundice. In summary, the correct answer is A because maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility can lead to hemolytic disease and subsequent jaundice, while the other choices are not directly related to neonatal jaundice.
Question 2 of 5
A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Kegel exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can aid in pelvic muscle stretching during birth. This can potentially reduce the risk of pelvic floor dysfunction postpartum. A is incorrect because Kegel exercises do not directly prevent constipation. C is incorrect because while Kegel exercises may indirectly help with backaches by improving pelvic floor muscle support, they are not specifically targeted for backache relief. D is incorrect as Kegel exercises do not prevent stretch marks, as stretch marks are related to skin elasticity rather than muscle tone.
Question 3 of 5
A client at 39 weeks of gestation in a prenatal clinic asks about signs preceding labor. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a sign that precedes labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A surge of energy. This is a sign that precedes labor as the body may experience a burst of energy known as the "nesting instinct." This surge can occur as the body prepares for the upcoming physical demands of labor. A: Decreased vaginal discharge is not a sign of impending labor; in fact, there may be an increase in vaginal discharge as the body prepares for childbirth. C: Urinary retention is not a sign of impending labor and can be a symptom of other issues such as a urinary tract infection. D: Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg is not a specific sign of labor approaching; weight fluctuations during pregnancy are common and can vary based on various factors.
Question 4 of 5
A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to evaluate the firmness of the uterus. This is because the client's low blood pressure may indicate postpartum hemorrhage, which is a common complication after childbirth. Assessing the firmness of the uterus helps determine if there is uterine atony, a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. By addressing uterine atony promptly, the nurse can prevent further blood loss and stabilize the client's condition. Summary: - Option B, initiating oxygen therapy, is not the first priority as the client's low blood pressure is likely due to hemorrhage rather than hypoxemia. - Option C, administering oxytocin infusion, may be necessary to address uterine atony but should only be done after assessing the firmness of the uterus. - Option D, obtaining a type and crossmatch, is important for potential blood transfusion but is not the immediate priority compared to assessing for uterine atony.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating a client with severe preeclampsia can be risky due to the potential for sudden worsening of symptoms and complications like seizures. It is important to prioritize rest and close monitoring in such cases. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour (A) is crucial as changes can indicate neurological involvement. Obtaining a daily weight (B) helps monitor fluid status. Continuous fetal monitoring (C) is necessary to assess the well-being of the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. In summary, ambulating the client with severe preeclampsia is the most concerning order as it may pose a significant risk to both the client and the fetus.