ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because urinary frequency is common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus. This symptom typically improves by the end of the first trimester, as the uterus rises and reduces pressure on the bladder. Therefore, telling the client that it occurs during the first trimester and near the end of pregnancy is accurate. Choice A is incorrect because urinary frequency should not be ignored as it could be a sign of a urinary tract infection or other underlying issue. Choice B is incorrect because it inaccurately suggests that urinary frequency only lasts until the 12th week and implies that poor bladder tone is the sole factor influencing this symptom. Choice C is incorrect because while it is true that individual experiences can vary, there are general patterns and timelines for common pregnancy symptoms like urinary frequency.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Tocolytic therapy is used to delay preterm labor and prevent premature birth. 2. Administering tocolytic therapy at 26 weeks of gestation allows time for corticosteroids to enhance fetal lung maturity. 3. Delaying labor at this stage can improve neonatal outcomes. 4. Other choices are incorrect because tocolytic therapy is not indicated for fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy.
Question 3 of 5
A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the indirect Coombs test is used to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In this scenario, the mother is Rh-negative, so if she has been sensitized to Rh-positive blood during childbirth, her immune system may produce antibodies that could potentially harm future Rh-positive pregnancies. This test helps identify the presence of these antibodies early on so appropriate interventions can be initiated to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: This test does not determine if kernicterus will occur in the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe complication of jaundice, which may result from hemolytic disease of the newborn if untreated. B: The indirect Coombs test does not detect Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. It specifically looks for Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. D: The test does not determine the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood. It focuses on detecting antibodies in
Question 4 of 5
During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nipple line. This landmark is used for measuring newborn chest circumference as it ensures consistency in measurement and is a reliable reference point. The nipple line is anatomically consistent and easily identifiable, making it the ideal landmark for accurate measurements. Rationale: A: Sternal notch is not recommended for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not a consistent landmark and may vary among individuals. C: Xiphoid process is not suitable for chest circumference measurement as it is located at the lower end of the sternum and not commonly used for this purpose. D: Fifth intercostal space is not a recommended landmark for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not as reliable and consistent as the nipple line.
Question 5 of 5
A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid. This is the appropriate nursing action because the woman is at risk for chorioamnionitis due to the elevated temperature and ruptured membranes. Assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid can help in identifying signs of infection, as foul-smelling amniotic fluid may indicate chorioamnionitis. This can guide further interventions and management, such as initiating antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect as waiting 4 hours to recheck the temperature can delay necessary interventions for potential infection. Choice B is also incorrect as administering glucocorticoids is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not warranted solely based on the client's temperature and ruptured membranes without further assessment for infection.