A newly admitted client has an elevated reticulocyte count. Which disorder does the nurse suspect in this client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemolytic anemia. An elevated reticulocyte count indicates increased production of red blood cells by the bone marrow in response to their destruction. In hemolytic anemia, red blood cells are being destroyed prematurely, leading to compensatory reticulocytosis. Aplastic anemia (A) is characterized by bone marrow suppression with decreased production of all blood cells, including reticulocytes. An infectious process (C) typically does not cause an elevated reticulocyte count. Leukemia (D) is a disorder of the white blood cells and does not directly impact red blood cell production.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (4.0-5.0). The normal range for total RBC count in women is typically between 4.0-5.0 million cells per microliter. This range represents the standard values accepted in clinical practice. Choice A (4.4-6) and D (4.2-5.2) are higher than the normal range for women, indicating polycythemia. Choice B (4.2-5) is slightly lower than the usual range, which could suggest anemia. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it falls within the expected range for total RBC count in women.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Hydroxyurea is a medication used to treat conditions like sickle cell disease. 2. It increases hemoglobin production by stimulating the production of fetal hemoglobin. 3. This increase in hemoglobin levels leads to decreased reticulocyte count. 4. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells, and their count decreases as hemoglobin production increases. Summary: - Answer A is correct because hydroxyurea does increase hemoglobin production and decrease reticulocyte count. - Answer B is incorrect because hydroxyurea does have these effects. - Answer C is incorrect as these effects are consistent. - Answer D is incorrect as hydroxyurea can have these effects in both adults and children.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sideroblastic anemia. This type of anemia is characterized by the bone marrow's inability to use iron properly for hemoglobin synthesis due to an inherited cause. Sideroblastic anemia is specifically associated with defects in heme synthesis, leading to the accumulation of iron in mitochondria. A: Iron deficiency anemia is caused by a lack of iron intake or absorption. B: Hypochromic anemia refers to anemia with abnormally low levels of hemoglobin in red blood cells. C: Aplastic anemia is due to bone marrow failure, leading to decreased production of all blood cell types.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Absolute lymphocytosis >5000/mm^3 without other symptoms indicates low tumor burden. 2. In Rai Staging System, Stage 0 represents low risk with lymphocytosis only. 3. No adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia rules out higher stages. 4. Hence, the correct answer is A: Stage 0. Other choices are incorrect due to absence of additional symptoms.