ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A newborn was transferred to the nursery 30 min after delivery. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because verifying the newborn's identification ensures the right baby is in the nursery. It is crucial for patient safety and prevents mix-ups. Confirming identification (choice A) is important but comes after verification. Administering vitamin K (choice C) is a necessary procedure but not the first priority. Determining obstetrical risk factors (choice D) is important but not as immediate as verifying identification. Thus, verifying the newborn's identification should be done first to prevent errors and ensure proper care.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium gluconate. When magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected, calcium gluconate is administered because it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the heart and central nervous system. This helps to counteract the muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias associated with magnesium toxicity. Nifedipine (A) is a calcium channel blocker and is not indicated for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine (B) is a form of vitamin B6 and is not used to treat magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate (C) is an iron supplement and is not relevant in the management of magnesium toxicity.
Question 3 of 9
A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the Above. 1. Decreased fetal movement indicates fetal distress, necessitating CST. 2. IUGR implies potential placental insufficiency, requiring CST evaluation. 3. Postmaturity increases risk of placental insufficiency, warranting CST. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly indicate the need for CST in a pregnant client.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the choices are risk factors for preterm labor. A: Urinary tract infection can lead to inflammation and contractions. B: Multifetal pregnancy puts more stress on the uterus, increasing the risk. C: Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of preterm labor due to decreased amniotic fluid levels. In summary, all the choices contribute to the increased likelihood of preterm labor.
Question 5 of 9
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You will be offered orange juice to drink during the test." This statement is correct because providing orange juice to the client during the nonstress test can stimulate fetal movement, making it easier to monitor the baby's heart rate. This can help in obtaining a more accurate assessment of the baby's well-being. Incorrect options: A: IV fluid administration is not typically required for a nonstress test, so this statement is incorrect. B: The procedure can actually take longer than 10 to 15 minutes, depending on various factors, so this statement is inaccurate. D: Informed consent is usually obtained once, not before each test, so this statement is not necessary for the client to know in this context.
Question 6 of 9
A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches are all contraindications to oral contraceptives. Cholecystitis can be exacerbated by oral contraceptives. Hypertension increases the risk of cardiovascular events with oral contraceptives. Migraine headaches, especially with aura, are associated with an increased risk of stroke when combined with oral contraceptives. Therefore, considering these risks, it is crucial to recognize these findings as contraindications to prescribing oral contraceptives.
Question 7 of 9
When reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with breastfeeding clients, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates an understanding of the importance of calcium intake for breastfeeding mothers. Calcium is essential for both the mother's health and the baby's bone development. Continuing calcium supplements shows a commitment to meeting nutritional needs. Incorrect choices: A: Having coffee is fine, but it's not directly related to postpartum nutrition needs. B: Folic acid is important for pregnancy but not specifically for increasing milk supply. C: While additional calories are needed during breastfeeding, the specific amount varies and is not always 330 calories per day.
Question 8 of 9
A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A client at 42 weeks of gestation is at risk for oligohydramnios, which is associated with decreased amniotic fluid levels. Amnioinfusion can be used to increase amniotic fluid volume to prevent fetal cord compression and facilitate fetal movement during labor. Summary: - B: Hydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not require amnioinfusion. - C: Fetal cord compression is a reason for amnioinfusion, not a condition to prepare for. - D: Polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not typically require amnioinfusion unless there are complicating factors.
Question 9 of 9
A client is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the client include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts. This is important for monitoring fetal well-being, especially in cases of premature rupture of membranes. By counting fetal kicks daily, the client can assess fetal movements and report any changes promptly to healthcare providers. This helps in early detection of fetal distress or problems. A: Using a condom with sexual intercourse is not relevant to the situation of premature rupture of membranes. B: Avoiding bubble bath solution is important for preventing vaginal infections but not directly related to monitoring fetal well-being. C: Wiping from front to back during perineal hygiene is a general hygiene practice and not specific to the situation of premature rupture of membranes.