ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B Questions
Question 1 of 9
A menopausal client is having difficulty getting to sleep and asks what actions she should incorporate into her daily routine to promote sleep. The nurse would encourage which of the following measures to promote sleep?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Limit alcohol and nicotine prior to bedtime. Alcohol and nicotine are stimulants that can disrupt sleep patterns, so avoiding them before bedtime can promote better sleep. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Consuming a warm drink at bedtime may lead to frequent urination, disrupting sleep; taking an evening walk before bedtime may increase alertness rather than inducing sleep; and taking an afternoon nap can make it harder to fall asleep at night.
Question 2 of 9
When providing education on the use of insulin, what should be included?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels before administration. This step is crucial to ensure the correct dose of insulin is administered based on the current blood glucose level. Choice A is incorrect as insulin usually needs to be stored in the refrigerator and has an expiration date. Choice C is incorrect because insulin can be short-acting, rapid-acting, intermediate-acting, or long-acting. Choice D is also incorrect as insulin can have side effects such as hypoglycemia if the dose is too high.
Question 3 of 9
A client with cholecystitis has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of the education?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 9
A client is prescribed tramadol for pain management. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tramadol can cause sedation, so the nurse should educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because tramadol is actually an opioid analgesic. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does carry a risk for dependence, especially with prolonged use. Choice D is not entirely accurate as tramadol is usually prescribed on a scheduled basis rather than as needed.
Question 5 of 9
A client is prescribed metronidazole for a bacterial infection. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.' Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, leading to symptoms like nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption. Choice B is incorrect because metronidazole is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect as metronidazole is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as hair loss is not a common side effect of metronidazole.
Question 6 of 9
A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle spasms, particularly of the face and neck. These symptoms should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice B is incorrect because metoclopramide is not meant to be taken only when feeling nauseous; it is used to treat nausea and vomiting. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to stay hydrated while taking metoclopramide. Choice D is incorrect because metoclopramide is usually taken before meals to improve gastric emptying, not necessarily on an empty stomach.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare provider is providing education on the use of clozapine. Which of the following should be included?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A nurse should include monitoring for agranulocytosis when educating a patient about clozapine. Clozapine is known to cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening decrease in white blood cells. This adverse effect requires close monitoring to detect it early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clozapine is not a first-line treatment for most conditions, it is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, and it is known to have a risk for metabolic syndrome.
Question 8 of 9
A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.
Question 9 of 9
A home health nurse is providing teaching to a patient who has a new diagnosis of a gastric ulcer and a new prescription for sucralfate oral suspension. What statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals, and at bedtime to coat the ulcer and protect it from stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect because taking it with meals may reduce its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect as it should not be taken right before bed. Choice D is incorrect as sucralfate should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.