A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)

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Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three signs (Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and Ballottement) are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to bluish discoloration of the cervix, Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix, and Ballottement is a palpable rebound of the fetus against the examiner's fingers. These signs are indicative of pregnancy and are commonly observed in pregnant individuals. Therefore, the provider should expect to see all these findings in a pregnant client. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because each of these signs individually is a probable sign of pregnancy, and the question asks for all the expected findings, not just one or two of them.

Question 2 of 9

A healthcare professional is preparing to collect a blood specimen from a newborn via a heel stick. Which of the following techniques should the professional use to help minimize the pain of the procedure for the newborn?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the newborn skin-to-skin on the mother's chest. This technique promotes bonding, warmth, and comfort, which can help minimize the newborn's pain perception during the procedure. Skin-to-skin contact releases oxytocin, which has analgesic effects. It also provides emotional support and reduces stress for both the newborn and the mother. A, applying a cool pack, may cause vasoconstriction and increase pain perception. B, requesting an IM analgesic, is not typically necessary for a routine heel stick and may have potential adverse effects. C, using a manual lancet, does not address the emotional and psychological aspects of pain perception in newborns.

Question 3 of 9

A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because continuing to take insulin during nausea and vomiting is crucial for maintaining blood glucose control in clients with diabetes. Nausea and vomiting can lead to decreased food intake, risking hypoglycemia if insulin is not adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because fasting blood glucose levels should ideally be maintained between 60-90 mg/dL in pregnant clients with diabetes for optimal outcomes, not 100-120 mg/dL. Choice B is incorrect because engaging in moderate exercise when blood glucose is high (250 or higher) can exacerbate hyperglycemia rather than help in lowering blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding exercise when blood glucose exceeds 250 is not recommended. Exercise can help lower blood glucose levels and improve insulin sensitivity.

Question 4 of 9

A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation is reviewing a new prescription of ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I plan to drink more orange juice while taking this pill." Orange juice is rich in vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of iron from ferrous sulfate, helping to combat iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. Taking the pill with a vitamin C source is important for optimal absorption. A: Taking the pill with breakfast may not provide enough vitamin C for optimal absorption. B: Milk may inhibit iron absorption due to its calcium content, so it is not ideal to take with ferrous sulfate. D: While increasing calcium-rich foods is important during pregnancy, it is not directly related to enhancing iron absorption from ferrous sulfate.

Question 5 of 9

A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transition. Transition phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 8 to 10 cm. This phase is characterized by intense contractions close together, increased rectal pressure, and emotional changes. The client in this scenario has contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and the cervix is dilated to 9 cm. This aligns with the characteristics of the transition phase. Summary: A: Active phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 4 to 7 cm. C: Latent phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 0 to 3 cm. D: Descent phase is not a recognized phase of labor.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the FHR continuously. This is essential in preeclampsia as magnesium sulfate can affect fetal heart rate (FHR). Continuous monitoring helps detect any changes promptly. A: Monitoring blood pressure is important but not as critical as FHR monitoring in this scenario. B: Restricting total hourly intake to 200 mL is not necessary for magnesium sulfate administration. D: Administering protamine sulfate is incorrect as it is used for heparin toxicity, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. Given the client's symptoms of right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, missed menstrual cycle, and presence of an intrauterine device, these are classic signs of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube, leading to abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Missed abortion would typically present with cramping, bleeding, and passage of tissue. C: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. D: Hydatidiform mole would typically present with vaginal bleeding and uterine enlargement, but not the sharp abdominal pain described.

Question 9 of 9

When reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with breastfeeding clients, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates an understanding of the importance of calcium intake for breastfeeding mothers. Calcium is essential for both the mother's health and the baby's bone development. Continuing calcium supplements shows a commitment to meeting nutritional needs. Incorrect choices: A: Having coffee is fine, but it's not directly related to postpartum nutrition needs. B: Folic acid is important for pregnancy but not specifically for increasing milk supply. C: While additional calories are needed during breastfeeding, the specific amount varies and is not always 330 calories per day.

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